Nursing Elites

1. During an assessment, a nurse asks a patient, "If you had fever and vomiting for 3 days, what would you do?"? Which aspect of the mental status examination is the nurse assessing?

• A. Behavior
• B. Cognition
• C. Affect and mood
• D. Perceptual disturbances

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse is assessing cognition in this scenario. Cognition involves evaluating a patient's judgment and decision-making abilities. By asking the patient what they would do in a specific situation, the nurse aims to determine the patient's cognitive function. A correct response indicating intact cognition would involve a decision like 'Call my doctor.' If the patient suggests inappropriate actions like 'I would stop eating' or 'I would just wait and see what happened,' it would suggest impaired judgment. The other options, behavior, affect and mood, and perceptual disturbances, refer to different aspects of the mental status examination and are not directly assessed through this question.

2. When auscultating the blood pressure of a 25-year-old patient, the nurse notices that the phase I Korotkoff sounds begin at 200 mm Hg. At 100 mm Hg, the Korotkoff sounds muffle. At 92 mm Hg, the Korotkoff sounds disappear. How should the nurse record this patient's blood pressure?

• A. 200/92
• B. 200/100
• C. 100/200/92
• D. 200/100/92

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When auscultating blood pressure, it is crucial to note the points at which Korotkoff sounds change. In adults, the last audible sound indicates the diastolic pressure. In this case, the Korotkoff sounds muffle at 100 mm Hg and disappear at 92 mm Hg. Therefore, the blood pressure should be recorded as systolic/diastolic, which is 200/92. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the correct points where the Korotkoff sounds change during blood pressure measurement.

3. Mrs. D is a pregnant client who is 33 weeks' gestation and is admitted for bright red vaginal bleeding. Her physician suspects placenta previa. All of the following nursing interventions are appropriate for this client except:

• A. Institute complete bed rest for the client
• B. Assess uterine tone to determine condition
• C. Perform a vaginal exam to assess cervical dilation
• D. Measure and record blood loss each shift

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A client with placenta previa has part of the placenta covering some or all of the cervical opening. Performing a vaginal exam for placenta previa may cause significant bleeding and should be avoided unless directed by a physician, and preparations are made for emergency delivery. **Choice A** is correct as complete bed rest is essential to decrease the risk of further bleeding. **Choice B** is appropriate as assessing uterine tone helps in determining the condition of the uterus and can provide important information for the healthcare team. **Choice D** is also a necessary intervention as monitoring and recording blood loss is crucial in assessing the client's condition and response to treatment.

4. A parent calls the pediatric clinic and is frantic about the bottle of cleaning fluid her child drank for 20 minutes. Which of the following is the most important instruction the nurse can give the parent?

• A. This too shall pass.
• B. Take the child immediately to the ER
• C. Contact the Poison Control Center quickly
• D. Give the child syrup of ipecac

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In situations where a child has ingested a potentially harmful substance, contacting the Poison Control Center quickly is crucial. The Poison Control Center can provide specific guidance tailored to the child's situation, which can include whether immediate medical attention is necessary or if any actions need to be taken at home. Option A, 'This too shall pass,' is not appropriate as it dismisses the seriousness of the situation. Option B, 'Take the child immediately to the ER,' may not always be the best course of action without guidance from experts. Option D, 'Give the child syrup of ipecac,' is outdated advice and not recommended as a first response to poisoning incidents.

5. Which of the following statements best describes footdrop?

• A. The foot is permanently fixed in the dorsiflexion position
• B. The foot is permanently fixed in the plantar flexion position
• C. The toes of the foot are permanently fanned
• D. The heel of the foot is permanently rotated outward

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Footdrop results in the foot becoming permanently fixed in a plantar flexion position, not dorsiflexion. This position points the toes downward. The client may be unable to put weight on the foot, making ambulation difficult. Footdrop can be caused by immobility or chronic illnesses that cause muscle changes, such as multiple sclerosis or Parkinson's disease. Choice A is incorrect because footdrop leads to plantar flexion, not dorsiflexion. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different condition known as 'toe fanning.' Choice D is incorrect as it describes an external rotation of the heel, which is not a characteristic of footdrop.

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