Nursing Elites

1. Who is most likely to arrange the discharge of a patient to their own home, a nursing home, or an assisted living facility?

• A. A physical therapist
• B. A speech therapist
• C. A social worker
• D. An occupational therapist

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Social workers play a crucial role in arranging patient discharges to suitable facilities. They collaborate with healthcare professionals to ensure that patients are transitioned to the most appropriate setting post-hospitalization. Social workers focus on the holistic needs of patients, including their social and emotional well-being, to facilitate a smooth continuum of care. Choices A, B, and D do not typically have the primary responsibility for arranging patient discharges to various facilities.

2. The nurse is preparing to perform a physical assessment. The correct action by the nurse is reflected by which statement?

• A. Performs the examination from both sides of the bed.
• B. Examines tender or painful areas last to help relieve the patient's anxiety.
• C. Follows a flexible examination sequence, considering the patient's age and condition.
• D. Organizes the assessment to ensure that the patient does not change positions too often.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should organize the assessment to minimize the patient's need to change positions frequently, ensuring efficiency and comfort. It is essential to perform the examination from both sides of the bed to facilitate a comprehensive assessment. Examining tender or painful areas last can help reduce patient discomfort and anxiety. The examination sequence should be flexible, taking into account the patient's age, condition, and specific needs. This approach allows for a tailored and patient-centered assessment, optimizing the quality of care provided.

3. The hospital has sounded the call for a disaster drill on the evening shift. Which of these clients would the nurse prioritize first on the list to be discharged in order to make a room available for a new admission?

• A. A middle-aged client with a history of being ventilator dependent for over seven (7) years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago.
• B. A young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 for over ten (10) years and admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago.
• C. An elderly client with a history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and lupus, and was admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome that morning.
• D. An adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best candidate for discharge during a need for emergency room availability is a stable patient with a chronic condition who is familiar with their care. In this scenario, the middle-aged client in option A, who has been ventilator dependent for over seven years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago, is most suitable for discharge. This client is likely stable and can continue medication therapy at home, making them the most appropriate choice for discharge at this time. Choice B should not be the priority for discharge as the young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago may need further monitoring and management of their condition. Choice C, the elderly client with multiple comorbidities and admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome on the same day, is not a suitable candidate for immediate discharge as they may require ongoing medical attention and observation. Choice D, the adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago, should not be discharged first as acute cellulitis may require continued treatment and monitoring, especially in the context of a positive HIV status.

4. Why should a palpated pressure be performed before auscultating blood pressure?

• A. To more clearly hear the Korotkoff sounds.
• B. To detect the presence of an auscultatory gap.
• C. To avoid missing a falsely elevated blood pressure.
• D. To more readily identify phase IV of the Korotkoff sounds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing a palpated pressure before auscultating blood pressure helps in detecting the presence of an auscultatory gap. An auscultatory gap is a period during blood pressure measurement when Korotkoff sounds temporarily disappear before reappearing. Inflation of the cuff 20 to 30 mm Hg beyond the point where a palpated pulse disappears helps in identifying this gap. This technique ensures accurate blood pressure measurement by preventing the underestimation of blood pressure values. The other options are incorrect because palpating the pressure is not primarily done to hear Korotkoff sounds more clearly, avoid missing falsely elevated blood pressure, or readily identify a specific phase of Korotkoff sounds.

5. Which vacutainer tubes should be used when a requisition calls for blood to be drawn for an H&H and glucose test?

• A. One light blue, one red
• B. Two lavenders
• C. One lavender, one grey
• D. One green, one red

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'One green, one red.' An H&H test involves hemoglobin and hematocrit, which are components of a complete blood count and are typically drawn in a lavender tube. On the other hand, blood for glucose testing is collected in grey tubes. Therefore, when drawing blood for both an H&H and glucose test, one green tube for glucose and one red tube for H&H should be used. The other choices are incorrect because light blue tubes are used for coagulation studies, lavender tubes are for complete blood counts, and green tubes are for chemistry tests like glucose, while grey tubes are specifically for glucose testing.

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