NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX PN Questions
1. During a scheduled health maintenance visit, which common source of stress for a 6-year-old client would the nurse include in the teaching session?
- A. Wanting to be first
- B. Demanding privacy
- C. Having a desire to be like an idol
- D. Being more selective with playmates
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A common source of stress for a 6-year-old school-age client is competition, such as wanting to be first or the best (winning). This aspect can create stress for a 6-year-old as they navigate social interactions and activities. Therefore, the nurse would address this issue during the teaching session at the health maintenance visit. Demanding privacy, having a desire to be like an idol, and being more selective with playmates are characteristics more commonly associated with 7-year-old clients, not typically seen in the stressors of a 6-year-old. Understanding age-appropriate stressors is crucial for providing tailored education and support in pediatric care.
2. A 20-year-old female client with noticeable body odor has refused to shower for the last 3 days. She states, 'I have been told that it is harmful to bathe during my period.' Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Accept and document the client's wish to refrain from bathing.
- B. Offer to give the client a bed bath, avoiding the perineal area.
- C. Obtain written brochures about menstruation to give to the client.
- D. Teach the importance of personal hygiene during menstruation to the client.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to teach the importance of personal hygiene during menstruation to the client. While respecting the client's beliefs, it is essential to provide education on maintaining hygiene during menstruation. This empowers the client with knowledge to make informed decisions. Options A and B can be considered after providing education. Option C, obtaining brochures, is not the priority as direct communication and teaching would be more effective in addressing the client's concerns.
3. Why might a nurse manager suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions?
- A. Individuals with this disorder respond well to small therapeutic groups.
- B. Therapeutic group work tends to be threatening to individuals who are suspicious.
- C. Compliance with unit rules and medication regimens increases as therapeutic group involvement increases.
- D. Involvement in small therapeutic groups may decrease the regression and dependency associated with institutionalization.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse manager would suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions because individuals who are suspicious find group settings threatening. Paranoid individuals struggle in groups as they may not trust others enough to engage effectively and tolerate the necessary interactions for group therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is that therapeutic group work tends to be threatening to individuals who are suspicious. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While some individuals with schizophrenia may respond well to small therapeutic groups, those with paranoid delusions may find them threatening. Compliance with unit rules and medication regimens may not necessarily increase with group therapy, especially for acutely ill psychiatric clients not ready to accept reality. Involvement in small therapeutic groups is not primarily aimed at decreasing regression and dependency associated with institutionalization, making it an inappropriate option for the client's specific needs.
4. Urinary catheterization is prescribed for a postoperative female client who has been unable to void for 8 hours. The nurse inserts the catheter, but no urine is seen in the tubing. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Clamp the catheter and recheck it in 60 minutes.
- B. Pull the catheter back 3 inches and redirect upward.
- C. Leave the catheter in place and reattempt with another catheter.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider of a possible obstruction.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When no urine is seen in the tubing after inserting a catheter in a female client who has not voided for 8 hours, it is possible that the catheter is in the vagina rather than the bladder. Leaving the initial catheter in place can help locate the meatus for the second attempt. The client should have at least 240 mL of urine output after 8 hours, indicating the need for catheterization. Clamping the catheter (Option A) does not address the issue of incorrect catheter placement. Pulling the catheter back and redirecting it (Option B) is not effective unless the catheter is completely removed, requiring a new catheter. There is no indication of a urinary tract obstruction to notify the healthcare provider (Option D) as the catheter could be inserted easily.
5. The emergency room nurse admits a child who experienced a seizure at school. The father comments that this is the first occurrence and denies any family history of epilepsy. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. Do not worry. Epilepsy can be treated with medications.
- B. The seizure may or may not mean your child has epilepsy.
- C. Since this was the first convulsion, it may not happen again.
- D. Long-term treatment will prevent future seizures.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is, 'The seizure may or may not mean your child has epilepsy.' There are various potential causes for a childhood seizure, such as fever, central nervous system conditions, trauma, metabolic alterations, and idiopathic reasons. It's essential not to jump to conclusions about epilepsy based on one seizure. Options A, C, and D provide premature or inaccurate information. Option A may give false reassurance without proper evaluation, option C assumes one seizure guarantees no recurrence, and option D oversimplifies treatment outcomes.
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