which common source of stress for a 6 year old client would the nurse include in the teaching session during a scheduled health maintenance visit
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX PN Questions

1. During a scheduled health maintenance visit, which common source of stress for a 6-year-old client would the nurse include in the teaching session?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A common source of stress for a 6-year-old school-age client is competition, such as wanting to be first or the best (winning). This aspect can create stress for a 6-year-old as they navigate social interactions and activities. Therefore, the nurse would address this issue during the teaching session at the health maintenance visit. Demanding privacy, having a desire to be like an idol, and being more selective with playmates are characteristics more commonly associated with 7-year-old clients, not typically seen in the stressors of a 6-year-old. Understanding age-appropriate stressors is crucial for providing tailored education and support in pediatric care.

2. What approach should the nurse use when a manipulative client who uses acting-out behaviors asks the nurse to talk while the nurse is orienting a new client to the unit?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should respond to the manipulative client who uses acting-out behaviors by setting realistic limits on behavior without rejecting the client. Therefore, the correct approach is to say to the interrupting client, 'I'll be back to talk with you after I orient this new client.' This response acknowledges the client's request while prioritizing the needs of the new client and setting appropriate boundaries. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Suggesting that the client speak with another staff member would be a rejection of the client, not the behavior. Leaving the new client to attend to the manipulative client would encourage further manipulation and disrupt the orientation process for the new client. Introducing the two clients and suggesting a tour is inconsistent with setting limits and does not address the manipulative behavior being displayed.

3. An adolescent reports irregularity in menses. Her mother complains that her child often fears gaining weight, has poor caloric intake, and has a distorted self-image. Which could be the reason for irregular menses?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Anorexia.' Anorexia is characterized by a lack of caloric intake motivated by a strong fear of gaining weight, leading to poor nutrition and potential irregular menses. Bulimia involves binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors. Orthorexia is characterized by an obsession with eating only healthy or 'pure' foods. Binge eating disorder is characterized by consuming large amounts of high-calorie food in a short period.

4. After receiving written and verbal instructions from a clinic nurse about a newly prescribed medication, a client asks the nurse what to do if questions arise about the medication after getting home. How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To ensure safe medication use, the nurse should encourage the client to call the clinic nurse or healthcare provider if any questions arise. This direct communication allows for personalized assistance and clarification tailored to the client's specific concerns. Providing Internet sites (Choice A) may lead to unreliable information, and a drug reference book (Choice B) may not address individualized questions. While the written instructions may contain information (Choice C), they may not cover all potential queries the client might have, making direct contact with the healthcare provider the most appropriate option.

5. Which of the following mental health situations is considered a psychiatric emergency?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A major depressive episode with psychotic features is considered a psychiatric emergency because it poses a significant risk to the individual's safety. Psychotic features in depression can include hallucinations, delusions, or other severe symptoms that require immediate intervention. While Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD) and depression with melancholic features are serious conditions, they do not inherently represent an acute emergency that necessitates immediate hospitalization. Bipolar depression, although severe, does not inherently involve psychotic symptoms that would classify it as a psychiatric emergency requiring immediate intervention. It's crucial to recognize the urgency and severity of major depressive episodes with psychotic features to ensure appropriate and timely treatment.

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