Nursing Elites

1. What initial treatment would the nurse expect for a preschool-aged child experiencing severe fear of the dark?

• A. Prescription medication
• B. Mental health counseling
• C. Cognitive behavioral therapy
• D. Repetition of brave statements

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Repetition of brave statements is an effective initial treatment for preschool-aged children with severe fear of the dark. This technique involves encouraging the child to repeat positive and reassuring statements to themselves to build confidence and reduce fear. Prescription medication is not typically the first-line approach for this type of fear in children due to potential side effects and safety concerns. Mental health counseling and cognitive behavioral therapy may be considered if the fear persists or is severe, but they are usually not the initial treatments for preschool-aged children with fear of the dark.

2. Which of the following is a typical assessment finding of a 24-year-old female with anorexia nervosa?

• A. Weight loss of more than 2% body fat
• B. Frequent binge-eating episodes followed by induced vomiting
• C. A history of poor academic performance and mediocre achievements
• D. Lack of menstruation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lack of menstruation. Amenorrhea, or lack of menstruation, is a common occurrence in individuals with anorexia nervosa. The induced starvation from anorexia can disrupt hormone levels, leading to menstrual irregularities. This hormonal imbalance can result in amenorrhea, which can have long-term consequences such as osteoporosis and infertility. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Weight loss of more than 2% body fat may be a consequence of anorexia but is not a specific assessment finding. Frequent binge-eating episodes followed by induced vomiting are more characteristic of bulimia nervosa, not anorexia nervosa. A history of poor academic performance and mediocre achievements is not a typical assessment finding related to anorexia nervosa symptoms.

3. Which risk factor for suicide is considered the most lethal?

• A. History of alcohol and drug abuse
• B. Previous high-lethality suicide attempts
• C. Recent withdrawal from friends
• D. Disturbance of family dynamics

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Previous high-lethality suicide attempts.' This is the most lethal risk factor as it indicates that the individual has previously attempted suicide in a manner that could lead to death. This history increases the likelihood of future attempts. While substance abuse, like alcohol and drug use, is a significant risk factor for suicide, it is not considered the most lethal. Withdrawal from friends or social isolation can contribute to suicide risk but is not as directly deadly as high-lethality attempts. Disturbance of family dynamics can also be a stressor but does not represent the immediate lethality associated with a history of high-lethality suicide attempts.

4. Which of the following best describes Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR)?

• A. A client follows the therapist's finger with their eyes while focusing on a negative thought or memory
• B. A client reads a story about a traumatic event and then visualizes the result
• C. A client focuses on a negative thought in their mind while tapping their fingers
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR) is a therapeutic approach used to address negative thoughts or traumatic memories, particularly in individuals with post-traumatic stress disorder. During EMDR, the client concentrates on a distressing thought or memory and the associated emotions while engaging in bilateral stimulation, often by moving their eyes back and forth. This bilateral stimulation can involve tracking the therapist's finger or other forms of sensory stimulation. Choice A is correct as it accurately describes the core process of EMDR. Choices B and C are incorrect as they do not involve the essential components of EMDR, which include eye movements or bilateral stimulation. Choice D is incorrect as EMDR is a specific therapeutic technique and not covered by selecting 'None of the above'.

5. What is the nurse's priority action when a client receiving a unit of packed red blood cells experiences tingling in the fingers and headache?

• A. Call the health care provider (HCP).
• B. Stop the transfusion.
• C. Slow the infusion rate.
• D. Assess the intravenous (IV) site for infiltration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client receiving a packed red blood cell transfusion experiences tingling in the fingers and headache, these symptoms may indicate an adverse reaction to the transfusion. The nurse's priority action is to immediately stop the transfusion and initiate a normal saline infusion at a keep vein open (KVO) rate. This helps maintain the client's vein patency while addressing the adverse reactions. After stopping the transfusion and initiating the saline infusion, the nurse should assess the client, including vital signs evaluation. Subsequently, the healthcare provider should be notified. Calling the healthcare provider is important, but it should be done after the immediate action of stopping the transfusion. Slowing the infusion rate is not appropriate during a suspected transfusion reaction as it can exacerbate the adverse effects. Assessing the IV site for infiltration is a routine nursing intervention and is not the priority when managing a potential adverse reaction to a blood transfusion.

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