a client who has been on hemodialysis for 2 years communicates in an angry critical manner and does not adhere to the prescribed medications and diet
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions

1. A client who has been on hemodialysis for 2 years communicates in an angry, critical manner and does not adhere to the prescribed medications and diet. Which explanation for the client's behavior would be useful to consider in planning care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client's angry, critical communication and non-adherence to treatment suggest underlying emotional struggles. The behavior is likely a defense mechanism against feelings of depression and fear. It is essential to consider that the client's actions are not intentionally aimed at punishing others but rather a manifestation of internal distress. Option A is incorrect as the behavior is not about punishing the nursing staff. Option B is incorrect because the behavior is not a constructive way of accepting reality but rather a maladaptive coping mechanism. Option D is incorrect as the behavior is not primarily driven by an effort to maintain life but rather by emotional distress.

2. Which reaction toward the physical symptom would the nurse observe in a client with conversion disorder?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In conversion disorder, the nurse would observe apathy toward the physical symptom. The development of the symptom serves as an unconscious method of reducing anxiety. The symptom is accepted passively, known as 'la belle indiff�rence.' There is no anger observed as symptoms are passively accepted. Similarly, there is no direct anxiety related to the physical symptom, as the conflict is resolved through the symptom development. While many individuals might experience agitation and seek to identify the cause of physical symptoms, in conversion disorder, there is an unusual calmness or indifference towards the physical manifestation, indicating apathy rather than other emotional responses.

3. A 28-month-old toddler is admitted to the pediatric unit with suspected meningitis. A few hours later the mother tells the nurse, 'I have to leave now, but whenever I try to go, my child gets upset, and then I start to cry.' Which is the best action by the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best action for the nurse in this situation is to stay with the child while the mother leaves. By doing so, the nurse can provide comfort and reassurance to both the child and the mother. This approach acknowledges the mother's need to leave while ensuring the child is not left alone and is supported during the separation. Walking the mother to the elevator does not address the child's emotional needs and may not provide adequate support. Encouraging the mother to spend the night is not necessary and may not be feasible for her. Telling the mother to wait until the child falls asleep is not recommended as it may create a sense of dishonesty and uncertainty for the child, who should be aware of the mother's departure and reassured that she will return.

4. Which instruction should the nurse provide to a preschool-age client to prevent altered growth and development?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Teaching a preschool-age child and their parents about the importance of impulse control is essential to prevent the risk of altered growth and development. Preschool-age children are at a stage where they are developing self-regulation skills, so teaching them to manage their impulses can help in their overall growth and development. Trust is a critical concept taught during infancy to foster secure attachments. Empathy is crucial for parents of toddlers to understand their child's emotions. Problem-solving skills are typically emphasized for school-age children to enhance cognitive development.

5. For which condition would electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) be used?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is indicated for severe clinical depression, especially in cases where clients do not respond well to psychotropic medications or require immediate intervention due to the severity of their depression. ECT is not typically used as a primary treatment for substance abuse disorders, antisocial personality disorder, or psychosis occurring in schizophrenia. While ECT is an effective intervention for severe depression, it is important to consider individual client needs and response to other treatment options before resorting to ECT.

Similar Questions

A client is being treated for anxiety and desires to be free from anxious feelings and despair. According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which level does this client need to meet?
An increase in the neurotransmitter dopamine is associated with which of the following illnesses?
Which response would the nurse make when a client moans softly, 'Oh no, I'm next. They couldn't protect him, and they can't protect me,' after learning a recently discharged client committed suicide?
Which method is used to verify the placement of a newly inserted central venous access device (CVAD)?
Which of the following is an example of passive aggression?

Access More Features

NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses