a client who has been on hemodialysis for 2 years communicates in an angry critical manner and does not adhere to the prescribed medications and diet
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions

1. A client who has been on hemodialysis for 2 years communicates in an angry, critical manner and does not adhere to the prescribed medications and diet. Which explanation for the client's behavior would be useful to consider in planning care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client's angry, critical communication and non-adherence to treatment suggest underlying emotional struggles. The behavior is likely a defense mechanism against feelings of depression and fear. It is essential to consider that the client's actions are not intentionally aimed at punishing others but rather a manifestation of internal distress. Option A is incorrect as the behavior is not about punishing the nursing staff. Option B is incorrect because the behavior is not a constructive way of accepting reality but rather a maladaptive coping mechanism. Option D is incorrect as the behavior is not primarily driven by an effort to maintain life but rather by emotional distress.

2. Which of the following is an advantage of working with psychiatric clients in a group setting?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Group therapy is a valuable approach in mental health treatment. Working with psychiatric clients in a group setting offers various benefits. Clients in a group setting can learn from others when their behaviors are inappropriate in a safe and trusting environment. This environment allows individuals to express thoughts and feelings without fear of judgment or criticism, fostering a supportive atmosphere. Through interactions with peers, clients can gain insight into their own behaviors and learn alternative ways of coping. Choice A is incorrect as the presence and support of a nurse are typically important in group therapy sessions. Choice B is incorrect as group settings provide structure and rules to ensure a safe space for clients to express themselves. Choice C is incorrect as maintaining confidentiality is crucial in group therapy to build trust and encourage open sharing.

3. What initial response would the nurse give to a husband who is upset that his wife's alcohol withdrawal delirium has persisted for a second day?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge the husband's feelings and provide information on the treatment plan to alleviate his concerns. This approach validates his emotions and educates him on the steps being taken to help his wife, promoting understanding and reducing anxiety. Choice B is incorrect as it dismisses the husband's worries and implies helplessness, potentially increasing his distress. Choice C is inappropriate as it introduces the concept of death, which can heighten fear and anxiety in the husband. Choice D is not recommended as it provides reassurance about the wife's pain without accurate knowledge of her discomfort, which could undermine trust and communication between the nurse and the husband.

4. The parents of a child often try to persuade their preschooler to touch their pet dog to reduce the child's fear of dogs. Instead, the child's fears and anxiety increase. Which advice would the nurse suggest to help overcome their child's fear?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To help the child overcome their fear of dogs, the nurse should recommend letting the child watch other children playing with dogs. This approach allows the child to observe interactions with dogs in a safe environment, gradually building comfort and familiarity. Encouraging the child to touch the dog's back gently may increase fear and anxiety, as it could be overwhelming for the child. Keeping the child away from dogs for a few years does not address the fear directly and may not help the child overcome it. Bringing in a pet cat, while introducing the child to animals, does not specifically target the fear of dogs and may not effectively reduce the fear and anxiety associated with dogs.

5. An ambulatory client reports edema during the day in his feet and an ankle that disappears while sleeping at night. What is the most appropriate follow-up question for the nurse to ask?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is asking about shortness of breath during normal daily activities because these symptoms suggest right-sided heart failure, leading to increased pressure in the systemic venous system. This pressure causes fluid to shift into the interstitial spaces, resulting in edema. In an ambulatory patient, lower extremities are typically affected first due to gravity. By asking about shortness of breath, the nurse can gather information to confirm the nursing diagnosis of activity intolerance and fluid volume excess, both associated with right-sided heart failure. The other choices are less relevant in this context and do not directly address the client's presenting symptoms.

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After being medicated for anxiety, the client says to the nurse, 'I guess you are too busy to stay with me.' Which response by the nurse is correct?
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