Nursing Elites

1. A client who is in a late stage of pancreatic cancer intellectually understands the terminal nature of the illness. Which behaviors indicate the client is emotionally accepting the impending death?

• A. Revising the client’s will and planning a visit to a friend
• B. Alternating between crying and talking openly about death
• C. Seeking second, third, and fourth medical opinions
• D. Refusing to follow treatments and stating they won’t help anyway

Correct answer: Revising the client’s will and planning a visit to a friend

Rationale: Revising the will and planning a visit to a friend are indicative of emotional acceptance of impending death as they demonstrate realistic, productive, and constructive ways of using the remaining time. Alternating between crying and talking openly about death may suggest depression rather than acceptance. Seeking multiple medical opinions shows disbelief, denial, or desperation rather than acceptance. Refusing treatments and stating they won’t help reflects anger and hopelessness, not acceptance.

2. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?

• A. Olanzapine
• B. Meperidine
• C. Ziprasidone
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: Meperidine

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.

3. A patient with major depression who has lost 20 pounds in one month, has chronic low self-esteem, and a plan for suicide. The patient has taken an antidepressant medication for 1 week. Which nursing intervention is most directly related to this outcome: 'Patient will refrain from gestures and attempts to harm self'?

• A. Implement suicide precautions.
• B. Frequently offer high-calorie snacks and fluids.
• C. Assist the patient to identify three personal strengths.
• D. Observe patient for therapeutic effects of antidepressant medication.

Correct answer: Implement suicide precautions.

Rationale: Implementing suicide precautions is the most critical intervention in this scenario as it directly addresses the patient's safety and the prevention of self-harm. The patient's significant weight loss, chronic low self-esteem, suicide plan, and recent initiation of an antidepressant medication indicate a high risk of self-harm. Suicide precautions involve close monitoring, removing harmful objects, and ensuring a safe environment to prevent the patient from acting on suicidal thoughts. While offering high-calorie snacks and fluids, assisting the patient in identifying personal strengths, and observing for therapeutic effects of the antidepressant are important aspects of care, they do not directly address the immediate risk of self-harm that implementing suicide precautions does.

4. A client with generalized anxiety disorder presents with restlessness and fatigue. Which additional clinical manifestation would the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hoarding
• B. Panic attacks
• C. Excessive worry
• D. Fear of leaving the house

Correct answer: Excessive worry

Rationale: The nurse would monitor for excessive worry. Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by physical and cognitive symptoms of chronic or excessive anxiety and worry. Excessive worry is a core feature of generalized anxiety disorder. Hoarding is a symptom of hoarding disorder, not generalized anxiety disorder. Panic attacks are typical of panic disorder, not generalized anxiety disorder. Fear of leaving the house is a characteristic of agoraphobia, which is distinct from generalized anxiety disorder.

5. A client experiences postpartum hemorrhage eight hours after the birth of twins. Following administration of IV fluids and 500 ml of whole blood, her hemoglobin and hematocrit are within normal limits. She asks the nurse whether she should continue to breastfeed the infants. Which of the following is based on sound rationale?

• A. Nursing will help contract the uterus and reduce your risk of bleeding.
• B. Breastfeeding twins will take too much energy after the hemorrhage.
• C. The blood transfusion may increase the risks to you and the babies.
• D. Lactation should be delayed until the 'real milk' is secreted.

Correct answer: Nursing will help contract the uterus and reduce your risk of bleeding.

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Nursing will help contract the uterus and reduce your risk of bleeding.' Stimulation of the breast during nursing releases oxytocin, which contracts the uterus. This contraction is especially important following hemorrhage. Choice B is incorrect because breastfeeding can actually help prevent further bleeding by promoting uterine contractions. Choice C is incorrect as the blood transfusion is aimed at restoring the client's blood volume and should not significantly impact the babies. Choice D is incorrect as lactation should not be delayed, as breastfeeding can provide numerous benefits to both the mother and infants, including aiding in the prevention of postpartum hemorrhage.

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