NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Integrity Questions
1. Which clinical findings indicate positive signs and symptoms of schizophrenia?
- A. Withdrawal, poverty of speech, inattentiveness
- B. Flat affect, decreased spontaneity, asocial behavior
- C. Hypomania, labile mood swings, episodes of euphoria
- D. Bizarre behavior, auditory hallucinations, loose associations
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is bizarre behavior, auditory hallucinations, and loose associations. These are positive symptoms of schizophrenia, reflecting a distortion or excess of normal function. Withdrawal, poverty of speech, inattentiveness, flat affect, decreased spontaneity, and asocial behavior are negative symptoms linked to schizophrenia, indicating a diminution or absence of normal function. Hypomania, labile mood swings, and episodes of euphoria are more characteristic of bipolar disorder, rather than schizophrenia.
2. Which of the following individuals is at the highest risk of experiencing intimate partner violence?
- A. A 36-year-old woman who is recently divorced
- B. A 22-year-old man who is unemployed but living with friends
- C. A 20-year-old woman who grew up with a psychologically abusive father
- D. A 40-year-old man diagnosed with schizophrenia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Intimate partner violence is a serious issue encompassing physical, psychological, or sexual abuse within an intimate relationship. Individuals who have experienced psychological abuse in their upbringing are at a higher risk of becoming victims themselves due to the normalization of abusive behaviors. While factors such as age, mental health conditions, and social support can contribute to vulnerability, growing up in an abusive environment can significantly heighten the risk of intimate partner violence. The other options, such as recent divorce (A), unemployment (B), and schizophrenia diagnosis (D), do not directly correlate with the same level of increased risk associated with a history of psychological abuse.
3. When emptying 350 mL of pale yellow urine from a client's urinal, the nurse notes that this is the first time the client has voided in 4 hours. Which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Record the amount on the client's fluid output record.
- B. Encourage the client to increase oral fluid intake.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider of the findings.
- D. Palpate the client's bladder for distention.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to record the amount of urine output on the client's fluid output record. The urine color and volume are within normal limits, indicating adequate hydration. There is no indication of a need to encourage increased oral fluid intake or notify the healthcare provider as the findings are normal. Palpating the client's bladder for distention is unnecessary in this scenario since the client has successfully voided a normal amount of urine after 4 hours.
4. Nursing behaviors associated with the implementation phase of the nursing process are concerned with:
- A. participating in the mutual identification of patient outcomes.
- B. gathering accurate and sufficient patient-centered data.
- C. comparing patient responses and expected outcomes.
- D. carrying out interventions and coordinating care.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During the implementation phase of the nursing process, nurses focus on executing interventions and coordinating care. This involves utilizing available resources, performing necessary interventions, exploring alternatives when needed, and collaborating with other healthcare team members to ensure comprehensive care delivery. Choice A is incorrect as it pertains more to the planning phase where patient outcomes are identified. Choice B is incorrect as it relates to data collection, which is primarily a part of the assessment phase. Choice C is incorrect as it involves evaluating patient responses against expected outcomes, which is part of the evaluation phase.
5. What step should be taken when administering ear drops to an adult client?
- A. Place the client in a side-lying position.
- B. Hold the dropper 1 cm above the ear canal.
- C. Place a cotton ball into the outermost canal.
- D. Pull the auricle down and back.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct step when administering ear drops to an adult client is to place the client in a side-lying position (A). This position allows for easier administration of the drops and helps prevent spillage. The dropper should be held approximately 1 cm (½ inch) above the ear canal (B) to ensure accurate delivery of the medication. Placing a cotton ball into the outermost canal (C) is unnecessary and may interfere with the absorption of the ear drops. Pulling the auricle down and back (D) is a technique used for children younger than 3 years old to straighten the ear canal, but it is not necessary for adults and may cause discomfort.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access