Nursing Elites

1. The wife of a client who is dying says, 'I want to see him, but I can only come twice a week because of work, household chores, and caring for our cat and dog.' Which defense mechanism is the wife using?

• A. Projection
• B. Sublimation
• C. Compensation
• D. Rationalization

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The wife is using rationalization as a defense mechanism. Rationalization involves offering a socially acceptable or logical explanation to justify an unacceptable feeling or behavior. In this scenario, the wife justifies her limited visits to her dying husband by citing other responsibilities such as work, household chores, and pet care. Projection involves denying one's unacceptable feelings and attributing them to others. Sublimation is the substitution of unacceptable feelings or drives with socially acceptable behaviors. Compensation involves making up for a perceived deficiency by emphasizing another perceived asset.

2. Which of the following outcomes is most appropriate during the crisis stage of caring for a victim of domestic violence?

• A. The client will verbalize community resources from which to seek shelter after discharge.
• B. The client will write a plan to keep herself and her children safe.
• C. The client will contact an attorney for help with pressing charges.
• D. The client will be safe and receive treatment for injuries.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the crisis stage of caring for a victim of domestic violence, the immediate priority is ensuring the client's safety and providing treatment for any injuries sustained. This focuses on addressing the urgent physical and emotional needs of the victim. While options like verbalizing community resources or creating safety plans are important for long-term support, they are not the primary concerns during the crisis phase. Contacting an attorney for legal assistance, though vital in the future, is not the immediate priority during the crisis stage when the client's safety and health are at the forefront.

3. A client diagnosed with sexual dysfunction states, 'Well, I guess my sex life is over.' Which response would the nurse use as a reply?

• A. I'm sorry to hear that.'
• B. 'Oh, you have a lot of good years left.'
• C. 'You are concerned about your sex life?'
• D. 'Have you asked your primary health care provider about that?'

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The response 'You are concerned about your sex life?' explores the meaning of the statement and allows further expression of concern. It shows empathy and encourages the client to elaborate on their feelings. Choice A, 'I'm sorry to hear that,' does not prompt the client to share more about their concerns and may close off communication. Choice B, 'Oh, you have a lot of good years left,' lacks empathy and understanding of the client's emotions, diverting the focus from the client's feelings. Choice D, 'Have you asked your primary health care provider about that?' shifts the responsibility away from the nurse and may not address the client's emotional needs, potentially making them feel dismissed or embarrassed to seek help.

4. Which statement best describes the pathophysiology of dementia of the Alzheimer type?

• A. There is a genetic predisposition and dysregulation of neurotransmitters.
• B. The dementia is transient and secondary to a physical imbalance or disorder.
• C. Hypoxia and decreased perfusion of select areas of the brain cause tissue damage.
• D. The presence of amyloid plaques is associated with brain tissue destruction.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In Alzheimer's disease, the accumulation of amyloid plaques in the brain is a hallmark feature. These plaques are associated with the destruction of brain tissue, contributing to the cognitive decline seen in dementia. Genetic predisposition and dysregulation of neurotransmitters are factors linked to the development of Alzheimer's disease, but the primary pathology lies in the amyloid plaques. Transient dementia is not characteristic of Alzheimer's disease, which is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder. Hypoxia and decreased perfusion are more typical of vascular dementia, where blood flow to the brain is compromised.

5. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?

• A. Olanzapine
• B. Meperidine
• C. Ziprasidone
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.

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