NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Integrity Questions
1. The wife of a client who is dying says, 'I want to see him, but I can only come twice a week because of work, household chores, and caring for our cat and dog.' Which defense mechanism is the wife using?
- A. Projection
- B. Sublimation
- C. Compensation
- D. Rationalization
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The wife is using rationalization as a defense mechanism. Rationalization involves offering a socially acceptable or logical explanation to justify an unacceptable feeling or behavior. In this scenario, the wife justifies her limited visits to her dying husband by citing other responsibilities such as work, household chores, and pet care. Projection involves denying one's unacceptable feelings and attributing them to others. Sublimation is the substitution of unacceptable feelings or drives with socially acceptable behaviors. Compensation involves making up for a perceived deficiency by emphasizing another perceived asset.
2. While reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication, a 72-year-old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual drive. Which is the best response by the nurse?
- A. How will this affect your present sexual activity?
- B. How active is your current sex life?
- C. How has your sex life changed as you have become older?
- D. Tell me about your sexual needs as an older adult.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best response in this scenario is option A, 'How will this affect your present sexual activity?' This response directly addresses the client's concern and allows them to express their thoughts and feelings. Option B does not directly address the client's worry about the medication's side effect. Options C and D deviate from the client's immediate concern and are not as relevant in this situation.
3. When emptying 350 mL of pale yellow urine from a client's urinal, the nurse notes that this is the first time the client has voided in 4 hours. Which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Record the amount on the client's fluid output record.
- B. Encourage the client to increase oral fluid intake.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider of the findings.
- D. Palpate the client's bladder for distention.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to record the amount of urine output on the client's fluid output record. The urine color and volume are within normal limits, indicating adequate hydration. There is no indication of a need to encourage increased oral fluid intake or notify the healthcare provider as the findings are normal. Palpating the client's bladder for distention is unnecessary in this scenario since the client has successfully voided a normal amount of urine after 4 hours.
4. A client with untreatable metastasized cancer tells the nurse, 'I think they made a mistake. I don't think I have cancer. I feel too good to be dying.' Which stage of grief is the client experiencing?
- A. Anger
- B. Denial
- C. Bargaining
- D. Acceptance
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client is experiencing the stage of denial. This is evident as the client is having difficulty accepting the reality of their diagnosis and denies the presence of cancer despite the evidence. During the anger stage, the individual expresses anger about their situation, questioning why it is happening to them. Bargaining involves attempting to negotiate for more time or a different outcome, acknowledging the reality of death but trying to delay it. Acceptance, on the other hand, is characterized by coming to terms with the inevitability of death and preparing for it peacefully. Therefore, in this scenario, the client's disbelief and refusal to accept the diagnosis align with the denial stage of grief.
5. The nurse selects the best site for insertion of an IV catheter in the client's right arm. Which documentation should the nurse use to identify the placement of the IV access?
- A. Left brachial vein
- B. Right cephalic vein
- C. Dorsal side of the right wrist
- D. Right upper extremity
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is the right cephalic vein. The cephalic vein is a large and superficial vein commonly used for IV access. Documenting the specific anatomic name of the vein used for IV access, such as the cephalic vein, is essential for accurate medical records. Option A, the left brachial vein, is incorrect as the brachial vein is too deep to be accessed for IV infusion. Option C, the dorsal side of the right wrist, is not a recommended IV access site due to fragile veins and potential pain for the patient. Option D, right upper extremity, is too broad and lacks the specificity necessary for precise documentation of the IV access site.
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