the nurse is preparing to administer 10 ml of liquid potassium chloride through a feeding tube followed by 10 ml of liquid acetaminophen which action
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX RN Questions

1. The nurse is preparing to administer 10 mL of liquid potassium chloride through a feeding tube, followed by 10 mL of liquid acetaminophen. Which action should the nurse include in this procedure?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Water should be instilled into the feeding tube between administering the two medications to maintain the patency of the feeding tube and ensure that the total dose of medication enters the stomach and does not remain in the tube. These liquid medications do not need to be diluted when administered via a feeding tube. Mixing the medications in one syringe can lead to interactions or alterations in the medications' properties. Withdrawing any fluid from the tube before instilling each medication can cause inaccurate dosing and incomplete administration. Therefore, the correct action is to administer water between the doses of the two liquid medications to ensure proper delivery and avoid any complications.

2. The nurse observes a UAP taking a client's blood pressure in the lower extremity. Which observation of this procedure requires the nurse's intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When obtaining blood pressure in the lower extremities, the popliteal pulse should be auscultated when the blood pressure cuff is applied around the thigh. The nurse should intervene when the UAP is auscultating the popliteal pulse with the cuff on the lower leg because this is incorrect placement. Option A, wrapping the cuff around the girth of the leg, ensures an accurate assessment. Option C, placing the client in a prone position, provides the best access to the artery. The systolic pressure in the popliteal artery is typically 10 to 40 mm Hg higher than in the brachial artery, so a systolic reading 20 mm Hg higher than the blood pressure in the client's arm is within the expected range and does not require intervention.

3. The nurse assesses a 2-year-old who is admitted for dehydration and finds that the peripheral IV rate by gravity has slowed, even though the venous access site is healthy. What should the nurse do next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a nurse assesses a slowed IV rate by gravity with a healthy venous access site in a 2-year-old admitted for dehydration, the next step would be to check for kinks in the tubing and raise the IV pole. This action ensures that the IV fluid can flow freely and reach the patient at the correct rate. Applying a warm compress proximal to the site (Choice A) is not indicated in this situation as it does not address the underlying issue of a slowed IV rate due to mechanical factors. Adjusting the tape that stabilizes the needle (Choice C) or changing the IV solution bag (Choice D) are not the priority actions in this case. These choices do not address the issue of a slowed IV rate caused by kinks in the tubing or the height of the IV pole, which are more likely reasons for the problem observed.

4. A client has been diagnosed with depression, and a nurse is assisting them. Which of the following is an example of a short-term outcome as part of the nursing process for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the nursing process for a client with depression, short-term outcomes are goals that need to be achieved before advancing towards long-term outcomes. Identifying life stressors that may be contributing to the depression is a crucial initial step. This process helps the client work through feelings of grief or sadness before moving on to long-term goals like therapy and depression management. Choice A is not a short-term outcome as the lifting of depression symptoms is usually a long-term goal. Choice C focuses on resolving insomnia, which is a symptom of depression, but not directly addressing the root cause. Choice D involves identifying a mental health counselor for ongoing therapy, which is more aligned with a long-term treatment plan, rather than a short-term outcome.

5. A 30-year-old woman is scheduled for a total abdominal hysterectomy due to noninvasive endometrial cancer. The nurse anticipates the client may have difficulty adjusting emotionally to this type of surgery. Which concern would be the cause of this anticipated difficulty?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Change in femininity.' The removal of the uterus can lead to changes in how some women perceive themselves sexually as it is a reproductive organ. In this young client, there may be heightened feelings of loss of femininity and reproductive potential. Body image changes could occur but are more likely with surgeries involving obvious external changes. Diminished sexual desire is unlikely in a premenopausal woman unless she has specific concerns. Slow recovery is not expected in an otherwise healthy 30-year-old woman undergoing this surgery.

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