NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions
1. What approach should the nurse use when a manipulative client who uses acting-out behaviors asks the nurse to talk while the nurse is orienting a new client to the unit?
- A. Suggest that the client requesting attention speak with another staff member.
- B. Leave the new client, saying, 'I'll talk with the other client until things calm down.'
- C. Introduce the two clients and suggest that the client join them on a tour of the facility.
- D. Say to the interrupting client, 'I'll be back to talk with you after I orient this new client.'
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should respond to the manipulative client who uses acting-out behaviors by setting realistic limits on behavior without rejecting the client. Therefore, the correct approach is to say to the interrupting client, 'I'll be back to talk with you after I orient this new client.' This response acknowledges the client's request while prioritizing the needs of the new client and setting appropriate boundaries. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Suggesting that the client speak with another staff member would be a rejection of the client, not the behavior. Leaving the new client to attend to the manipulative client would encourage further manipulation and disrupt the orientation process for the new client. Introducing the two clients and suggesting a tour is inconsistent with setting limits and does not address the manipulative behavior being displayed.
2. Which feeling would be difficult for a client with major depression to express?
- A. Need for comforting
- B. Anger toward others
- C. Remorse for past behaviors
- D. Feelings of low self-esteem
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clients with major depression often have difficulty expressing anger toward others as their anger is typically directed inwards. Expressing the need for comforting is common among clients with major depression. They can also articulate remorse for past behaviors to an excessive degree. Furthermore, feelings of low self-esteem can be openly expressed by clients with major depression. Therefore, the difficulty in expressing anger toward others is the most appropriate choice as clients with major depression tend to internalize their anger.
3. A female client with frequent urinary tract infections (UTIs) asks the nurse to explain her friend's advice about drinking a glass of juice daily to prevent future UTIs. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Orange juice has vitamin C that deters bacterial growth.
- B. Apple juice is the most useful in acidifying the urine.
- C. Cranberry juice stops pathogens' adherence to the bladder.
- D. Grapefruit juice increases absorption of most antibiotics.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Cranberry juice stops pathogens' adherence to the bladder.' Cranberry juice maintains urinary tract health by reducing the adherence of Escherichia coli bacteria to cells within the bladder. This helps prevent UTIs. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because orange juice with vitamin C, apple juice for urine acidification, and grapefruit juice for antibiotic absorption do not have the same proven effectiveness in preventing UTIs as cranberry juice does.
4. For a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder, which reaction is most likely to occur when the performance of a ritual is interrupted?
- A. Anxiety
- B. Hostility
- C. Aggression
- D. Withdrawal
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder is interrupted while performing a ritual, the most likely reaction is anxiety. The compulsive ritual serves as a coping mechanism to control anxiety, so any disruption to this ritual can heighten the individual's anxiety levels. Hostility is typically part of the disorder itself and not a direct reaction to the interruption of the ritual. Aggression may occur only if anxiety escalates to a panic level, leading to overt anger expression. Withdrawal is not a common behavioral pattern associated with obsessive-compulsive disorder and is not a typical reaction to ritual interruption.
5. While reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication, a 72-year-old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual drive. Which is the best response by the nurse?
- A. How will this affect your present sexual activity?
- B. How active is your current sex life?
- C. How has your sex life changed as you have become older?
- D. Tell me about your sexual needs as an older adult.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best response in this scenario is option A, 'How will this affect your present sexual activity?' This response directly addresses the client's concern and allows them to express their thoughts and feelings. Option B does not directly address the client's worry about the medication's side effect. Options C and D deviate from the client's immediate concern and are not as relevant in this situation.
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