Nursing Elites

1. An older adult who recently began self-administration of insulin calls the nurse daily to review the steps that should be taken when giving an injection. The nurse has assessed the client's skills during two previous office visits and knows that the client is capable of giving the daily injection. Which response by the nurse is likely to be most helpful in encouraging the client to assume total responsibility for the daily injections?

• A. "I know you are capable of giving yourself the insulin."
• B. "Giving yourself the injection seems to make you nervous."
• C. "When I watched you give yourself the injection, you did it correctly."
• D. "Tell me what you want me to do to help you give yourself the injection at home."

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate response by the nurse in this scenario is option C. By acknowledging and affirming the client's demonstrated ability to self-administer the injection correctly, the nurse is providing positive reinforcement. This positive reinforcement helps to build the client's confidence and encourages them to take total responsibility for their daily injections. Option A, while positive, does not specifically reinforce the client's behavior related to giving the injection. Option B focuses on the client's feelings of nervousness, which may not be helpful in promoting independence. Option D, by offering help without assessing the client's actual needs, reinforces dependence on the nurse rather than encouraging self-reliance.

2. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?

• A. Olanzapine
• B. Meperidine
• C. Ziprasidone
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.

3. Which action often triggers an episode of violence or aggression in a patient with a psychiatric diagnosis involving violent behavior?

• A. Obtaining a history
• B. Asking for input into care
• C. Enforcing rules
• D. Taking a walk

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Enforcing rules is often a trigger for patients with psychiatric diagnoses involving violent behavior. Limit-setting or denying patient demands can be perceived as control and intimidation, leading to aggressive responses. Nursing staff must respond calmly and professionally to prevent escalation. Avoiding such patients or matching their emotions can worsen the situation. Therefore, enforcing rules can provoke violent episodes in these patients.

4. Which characteristic is associated with anorexia nervosa?

• A. Manic
• B. Rebellious
• C. Hypoactive
• D. Perfectionistic

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Individuals with anorexia nervosa often exhibit perfectionistic traits, characterized by rigid standards and extreme self-discipline as a way to maintain control and fulfill personal and societal expectations. The focus on achieving an ideal body image through strict dietary habits and excessive exercise is a common manifestation of this perfectionism. The incorrect choices are: A) 'Manic' is not typically associated with anorexia nervosa; individuals with this disorder are more likely to experience anxiety and depression. B) 'Rebellious' does not align with the usual behavior seen in individuals with anorexia nervosa, who tend to comply with societal expectations rather than rebel against them. C) 'Hypoactive' does not describe the characteristic behavior of individuals with anorexia nervosa, who often engage in excessive physical activity as a means of weight loss.

5. Based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement when providing care for an older incontinent client?

• A. Maintain standard precautions.
• B. Initiate contact isolation measures.
• C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
• D. Instruct the client in the use of adult diapers.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection in an older incontinent client is to maintain standard precautions. The best way to reduce the risk of infection in vulnerable clients is through proper handwashing and adherence to standard precautions. Option B, initiating contact isolation measures, is excessive unless the client has a confirmed infection requiring isolation. Option C, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, actually increases the risk of infection due to the introduction of a foreign body. Option D, instructing the client in the use of adult diapers, does not directly address the risk of infection and is not as effective as maintaining standard precautions in preventing infection transmission.

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