NCLEX-RN
Saunders NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. Which of the following is an example of a living will?
- A. A client's son has been appointed to make his healthcare decisions if he becomes incapacitated
- B. A client has designated which of his children will receive his home and property before he dies
- C. A client has instructions that he does not want to be resuscitated through chest compressions if his heart stops beating
- D. A client designates what type of burial or cremation services he would want after his death
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A living will is a type of advanced directive that a client develops to stipulate his preferences for healthcare in the event that he is unable to do so. This includes specific instructions about medical treatments in certain situations. Choice C is the correct answer as it reflects a scenario where the client has clearly outlined their preference regarding resuscitation through chest compressions. Choices A, B, and D do not pertain to a living will. Choice A involves a healthcare proxy or agent, choice B involves a will or estate planning, and choice D involves funeral or burial arrangements, which are not part of a living will.
2. A complication of osteoporosis is _______________?
- A. rheumatoid arthritis
- B. gouty arthritis
- C. dorsiflexion
- D. joint deformity
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Joint deformity is a well-known complication of osteoporosis, leading to structural changes in the joints due to bone loss and fragility. Gouty arthritis and rheumatoid arthritis are distinct types of arthritis that are not direct complications of osteoporosis. Dorsiflexion is a movement related to the foot's range of motion and is not a typical complication of osteoporosis.
3. A client is admitted to a nursing unit with a remittent fever. Which statement best describes this pattern of fever?
- A. A fever that spikes and then lowers without returning to normal
- B. A fever that lasts 2 days followed by normal temperature for 2 days, followed by fever again
- C. A fever that lasts 2 days followed by normal temperature for 12 hours, followed by fever again
- D. A persistent fever that has lasted over 24 hours
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A remittent fever is characterized by temperature fluctuations where the fever spikes and then lowers but does not return to normal temperature. Option A best describes this pattern of fever. Option B describes a pattern of fever known as a biphasic fever, where the fever alternates between days of fever and normal temperature. Option C describes a pattern of fever that is more indicative of an intermittent fever, where the fever lasts for a specific duration followed by an interval of normal temperature. Option D does not accurately describe a remittent fever, as it suggests a persistent fever that has lasted over 24 hours, which is not specific to the remittent pattern.
4. Tommy R., your 68-year-old patient, is at risk for falls. He has fallen 3 times in the last month. You should keep Tommy's ______________ in order to prevent him from falling again.
- A. bedside rails up at all times
- B. bed in the low position
- C. call bell within reach
- D. family members in the room at all times
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To prevent falls, it is essential to keep the patient's call bell within reach so they can easily call for help when needed. This allows for timely assistance and can prevent falls. While low beds can reduce the severity of injuries in case of a fall, they do not prevent falls from happening. Having family members in the room at all times is not a realistic or practical solution. Side rails can actually increase the severity of falls as patients may attempt to climb over them, and using side rails as fall prevention is considered a restraint practice that can lead to entrapment and other risks.
5. A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but the diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability.
- A. A lumbar puncture takes a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from the back, which will be analyzed by the lab.
- B. The physician will insert a needle at the level of L4-L5 in the spinal cord.
- C. The client should lie flat on their back for a specific period following the procedure.
- D. The risks of the procedure include headache, back pain, and infection.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A lumbar puncture is performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid for analysis to investigate various conditions affecting the client. During the procedure, the client is typically positioned on their side or sitting leaning over a table with their back rounded. The physician inserts a needle into the back around the L4-L5 vertebrae to collect the sample. Option A is incorrect because a lumbar puncture does not draw blood but instead collects cerebrospinal fluid. Option C is incorrect as the client should not necessarily lie flat for 24 hours post-procedure. Option D is incorrect as the common risks of a lumbar puncture include headache, back pain, and potential infection, not nausea, rash, or hypotension.
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