Nursing Elites

1. Mr. Y had surgery two days ago and is recovering on the surgical unit of the hospital. Just before lunch, he develops chest pain and difficulties with breathing. His respiratory rate is 32/minute, his temperature is 100.8�F, and he has rales on auscultation. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate in this situation?

• A. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position
• B. Contact the physician for an order for antibiotics
• C. Administer oxygen therapy
• D. Decrease his IV rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chest pain, dyspnea, tachypnea, mild fever, and rales or crackles on auscultation in a client who had surgery 2 days ago may be indicative of a pulmonary embolism. The nurse should administer oxygen to address his breathing and assist him to a comfortable position to facilitate better oxygenation before contacting the physician. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position is not recommended in this situation as it may worsen a potential pulmonary embolism by increasing venous return. Contacting the physician for antibiotics is not the priority as the immediate concern is addressing the breathing difficulty. Decreasing the IV rate is not indicated in this situation where the client is experiencing respiratory distress and needs oxygen therapy.

2. Which of the following is a local sign of infection?

• A. Swelling
• B. Rapid pulse
• C. Fever
• D. High white blood count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A local sign of infection refers to symptoms that are specific to the area of infection. Swelling, heat, pain, and redness near the infected site are examples of local signs. In the context of infection, swelling occurs due to an accumulation of fluid and immune cells at the site of infection. Rapid pulse, fever, and high white blood count are more systemic responses to infection and not specific local signs. Rapid pulse can indicate systemic distress or sepsis, fever is a systemic response to infection, and high white blood count is a laboratory finding that suggests an immune response but is not a direct sign of infection at a specific site.

3. A client in a long-term care facility tells the nurse, 'My daughter never visits me.' The nurse responds by telling the client that when her own mother was in a long-term care facility, she found it difficult to visit. This is an example of which communication technique?

• A. Empathy
• B. Self-disclosure
• C. Disapproval
• D. False reassurance

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Self-disclosure is a therapeutic communication technique that nurses use to build rapport and trust with clients. By sharing personal experiences, nurses can help clients feel understood and encourage them to open up. In this scenario, the nurse sharing her own struggle with visiting her mother demonstrates self-disclosure. Empathy (choice A) involves understanding and sharing the feelings of another, but in this case, the nurse is sharing her own experience rather than focusing solely on the client's emotions. Disapproval (choice C) and false reassurance (choice D) do not apply in this context as the nurse is not expressing disapproval or giving false hope or comfort.

4. A 31-year-old woman who has multiple sclerosis (MS) asks the nurse about risks associated with pregnancy. Which response by the nurse is accurate?

• A. MS symptoms may be worse after the pregnancy
• B. Women with MS frequently have premature labor
• C. MS is associated with an increased risk for congenital defects
• D. Symptoms of MS are likely to become worse during pregnancy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After pregnancy, women with MS are at higher risk for exacerbation of symptoms due to the postpartum period. There is no increased risk for congenital defects in infants born to mothers with MS. Symptoms of MS may actually improve during pregnancy, likely due to hormonal changes. MS does not significantly impact the onset of labor. Therefore, the correct response is that MS symptoms may worsen after pregnancy, making option A the accurate answer. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the risks associated with pregnancy in individuals with MS.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is post-op day #1 after a total hip replacement. Although the client was alert with a normal affect in the morning, by lunchtime, the nurse notes the client is confused, has slurred speech, and is having trouble with her balance. Her blood glucose level is 48 mg/dl. What is the next action of the nurse?

• A. Contact the physician immediately
• B. Administer a bolus of 50 cc of D20W through the IV
• C. Administer 10 units of regular insulin
• D. Give the client 6 oz. of orange juice

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client with a blood glucose level of 48 mg/dl is experiencing significant hypoglycemia, as manifested by confusion, balance difficulties, and slurred speech. The nurse should work to correct this situation as rapidly as possible. The first measure that can be performed quickly and will have fast results is to give the client something to eat or drink that contains glucose, such as 6 oz. of orange juice. Administering a bolus of D20W through the IV (Choice B) would be too aggressive and could lead to complications in this scenario. Administering regular insulin (Choice C) would further lower the blood glucose level, worsening the client's symptoms. Contacting the physician (Choice A) is important, but immediate intervention to raise the blood glucose level is crucial to address the client's hypoglycemia.

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