NCLEX-RN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX RN Questions
1. Mr. Y had surgery two days ago and is recovering on the surgical unit of the hospital. Just before lunch, he develops chest pain and difficulties with breathing. His respiratory rate is 32/minute, his temperature is 100.8�F, and he has rales on auscultation. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate in this situation?
- A. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position
- B. Contact the physician for an order for antibiotics
- C. Administer oxygen therapy
- D. Decrease his IV rate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Chest pain, dyspnea, tachypnea, mild fever, and rales or crackles on auscultation in a client who had surgery 2 days ago may be indicative of a pulmonary embolism. The nurse should administer oxygen to address his breathing and assist him to a comfortable position to facilitate better oxygenation before contacting the physician. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position is not recommended in this situation as it may worsen a potential pulmonary embolism by increasing venous return. Contacting the physician for antibiotics is not the priority as the immediate concern is addressing the breathing difficulty. Decreasing the IV rate is not indicated in this situation where the client is experiencing respiratory distress and needs oxygen therapy.
2. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. While taking a history, the client tells the nurse he was admitted for the same thing twice before, the last time just 3 months ago. The nurse would anticipate the healthcare provider ordering:
- A. Pulmonary embolectomy
- B. Vena caval interruption
- C. Increasing the coumadin therapy to achieve an INR of 3-4
- D. Thrombolytic therapy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the case of a client with a history of recurrent pulmonary embolism or contraindications to heparin, vena caval interruption may be necessary. Vena caval interruption involves placing a filter device in the inferior vena cava to prevent clots from traveling to the pulmonary circulation. Pulmonary embolectomy is a surgical procedure to remove a clot from the pulmonary artery, which is usually considered in severe or life-threatening cases. Increasing coumadin therapy to achieve a higher INR may be an option but vena caval interruption would be more appropriate in this scenario. Thrombolytic therapy is used in acute cases of pulmonary embolism to dissolve the clot rapidly, but in a recurrent case with contraindications to anticoagulants, vena caval interruption would be a preferred intervention.
3. The clinic nurse teaches a patient with a 42 pack-year history of cigarette smoking about lung disease. Which information will be most important for the nurse to include?
- A. Options for smoking cessation
- B. Reasons for annual sputum cytology testing
- C. Erlotinib (Tarceva) therapy to prevent tumor risk
- D. Computed tomography (CT) screening for lung cancer
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most critical information for the nurse to provide to a patient with a significant smoking history is options for smoking cessation. Smoking is the primary cause of lung cancer, making smoking cessation essential in reducing the risk of developing the disease. Annual sputum cytology testing is not a standard screening test for lung cancer; instead, CT scanning is being explored for this purpose. Erlotinib therapy is used in lung cancer treatment but not for preventing tumor risk in individuals without cancer. CT screening for lung cancer is still under investigation and is not primarily aimed at prevention but rather early detection in high-risk individuals.
4. A nurse is caring for a 3-day old infant who needs an exchange transfusion. Which of the following statements is appropriate for teaching the child's parents about this procedure?
- A. The registered nurse will be performing the procedure
- B. The procedure takes approximately 1 ? hours.
- C. The nurse will draw out 250cc of blood and then immediately replace it with 250cc
- D. The infant will continue to receive phototherapy during the procedure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: : An exchange transfusion is a method of controlling high bilirubin levels in infants when traditional phototherapy is unsuccessful. During an exchange transfusion, the physician removes 5-10 cc of blood and then replaces it with donor blood. The parents of this infant should know that the procedure is always performed by a physician and will take approximately 1 � hours to complete.
5. A client with adrenal insufficiency has a potassium level of 7.2 mEq/L. Which of the following signs or symptoms might the client exhibit with this result?
- A. Peaked T waves on the ECG
- B. Muscle spasms
- C. Constipation
- D. A prominent U wave on the ECG
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability. Muscle spasms (Choice B) are more commonly associated with hypocalcemia. Constipation (Choice C) is not a typical sign of hyperkalemia. A prominent U wave on the ECG (Choice D) is associated with hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia.
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