Nursing Elites

1. A complication of osteoporosis is _______________?

• A. rheumatoid arthritis
• B. gouty arthritis
• C. dorsiflexion
• D. joint deformity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Joint deformity is a well-known complication of osteoporosis, leading to structural changes in the joints due to bone loss and fragility. Gouty arthritis and rheumatoid arthritis are distinct types of arthritis that are not direct complications of osteoporosis. Dorsiflexion is a movement related to the foot's range of motion and is not a typical complication of osteoporosis.

2. You are on the unit and overhear another nurse talking on the phone to a patient's friend who wants to see her patient who is comatose and on a ventilator. Since you cared for that patient yesterday, you know that the patient's significant other, who is also the designated healthcare surrogate (HCS) and has power of attorney (POA), has expressly stated that he wants this person on the list for restricted visitors. The nurse whispers that she'll call him to visit as soon as the significant other has gone home. What should your first response be?

• A. Inform the significant other
• B. Report the nurse to the nurse manager
• C. Speak with the nurse directly in private
• D. Call the visitor and tell him he can't visit

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Speaking with the nurse directly and privately is the most constructive manner in which to handle this situation and advocate for the significant other's wishes. Doing so will open communication with a peer and build the relationship, instead of alienating the other nurse by taking action that does not involve her and will cast her in a negative light with others. It is essential to express your concerns regarding honoring the significant other's requests and rights regarding the limitation of visitors. Option A is incorrect because the significant other is not the one trying to visit, and it is more appropriate to address the nurse directly first. Option B is not the best initial response as it may escalate the situation without giving the nurse a chance to correct the issue. Option D is incorrect as it does not address the issue at its source and may create further conflict without resolving the underlying problem.

3. What does an anti-kickback statute prevent?

• A. It prevents healthcare workers from providing food or hosting parties to celebrate special occasions at work.
• B. It promotes thorough and complete documentation when a client becomes injured.
• C. It forbids giving or accepting gifts to promote or provide referrals for certain services.
• D. It prevents physicians from ordering treatments that may require nursing care beyond the usual amount.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An anti-kickback statute aims to prevent healthcare providers, clients, consultants, or related organizations from giving or accepting gifts to reward others for referrals of certain services. Choice A is incorrect because providing food or hosting parties at work is not the primary focus of anti-kickback statutes. Choice B is incorrect as it pertains more to documentation practices rather than gift-giving. Choice D is incorrect as it refers to the scope of physician orders and nursing care, not gift exchanges for referrals. The correct answer, as stated, aligns with the purpose of anti-kickback statutes to prevent improper incentives in healthcare relationships.

4. Which of the following screening tools have been found to have high diagnostic accuracy for screening for intimate partner violence?

• A. Hurt, Insult, Threaten, and Scream (HITS)
• B. Humiliation, Afraid, Rape, and Kick (HARK)
• C. Slapped, Threatened, and Thrown (STaT)
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: All of the above screening tools, including HITS, HARK, and STaT, have been found to have high diagnostic accuracy for screening intimate partner violence, as per the National Preventive Services Task Force. These tools are effective in identifying current or recent intimate partner violence. While the Partner Violence screen may have some predictive value for future intimate partner violence, the question specifically focuses on screening tools with high diagnostic accuracy, making 'All of the above' the correct choice. Choices A, B, and C are specific validated screening tools for intimate partner violence, each with its own set of questions that have been shown to be effective in identifying individuals experiencing intimate partner violence. Therefore, 'All of the above' is the most comprehensive and accurate choice for this question.

5. The chain of infection includes the ________________.

• A. germ, agent, reservoir, exit portal, mode of transmission, entry port, and susceptible host
• B. active natural, active artificial, passive natural, and passive artificial
• C. opportunism, weakness, immunity, and colonization
• D. intrinsic, extrinsic, internal, and external transmission

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The chain, or cycle, of infection includes the germ (microorganism), agent, reservoir, exit portal, mode of transmission, entry port, and susceptible host. This sequence describes how infections are passed from one person to another. Choice B is incorrect because it refers to types of immunity, not components of the chain of infection. Choice C is also incorrect as it lists terms unrelated to the chain of infection. Choice D is incorrect as it describes transmission types, not components of the chain of infection. Understanding the chain of infection is crucial in preventing the spread of infections by breaking one or more links in the chain, such as interrupting the mode of transmission through proper hand hygiene.

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