Nursing Elites

1. Which action by a client who requires an above-the-knee amputation for peripheral arterial disease best indicates emotional readiness for the surgery?

• A. Explains the goals of the procedure
• B. Displays few signs of anticipatory grief
• C. Participates in learning perioperative care
• D. Verbalizes acceptance of permanent dependency needs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Participating actively in learning self-care demonstrates emotional acceptance of the need for surgery and readiness for planning post-surgery. Explaining the goals of the procedure may reflect intellectual readiness but not necessarily emotional readiness. A client who shows few signs of anticipatory grief may be suppressing emotions or in denial, which can hinder the emotional readiness. Verbalizing acceptance of permanent dependency needs suggests the client may require further education and emotional support, as it may not reflect a healthy emotional readiness for the surgery.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing several clients before surgery. Which factor in a client's history poses the greatest threat for complications during surgery?

• A. Taking birth control pills for the past 2 years
• B. Taking anticoagulants for the past year
• C. Recently completing antibiotic therapy
• D. Having taken laxatives PRN for the last 6 months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is taking anticoagulants for the past year. Anticoagulants increase the risk of bleeding during surgery, which can lead to complications. It is crucial for the healthcare provider to be aware of this medication. While clients taking birth control pills (option A) may be more prone to developing blood clots, these issues typically arise after surgery. Clients who recently completed antibiotic therapy (option C) or have taken laxatives PRN for the last 6 months (option D) are at lower risk compared to those taking anticoagulants (option B) during surgery.

3. When developing Jerry's plan of care, which of the following would NOT be helpful to include?

• A. Limiting choices
• B. Providing structure
• C. Encouraging patient input
• D. Ensuring availability of PRN medications

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Limiting choices would not be helpful in Jerry's plan of care. Providing options, even if among limited choices, offers the patient a sense of independence rather than imposing control. Providing structure is crucial, especially in transitioning from a psychiatric to a medical-surgical unit. Encouraging patient input in identifying triggers and effective methods for managing aggressive impulses is essential for empowerment and individualized care. Ensuring the availability and prompt delivery of PRN medications gives the patient a sense of control and security, assuring access to necessary medication when needed.

4. A client who has multiple sclerosis is admitted to the hospital with increasingly frequent and severe exacerbations. One day, the client's partner confides to the nurse, 'Life is getting very hard and depressing, and I am upset with myself for thinking about a nursing home.' After listening to the partner's concerns, which response would the nurse make?

• A. 'Joining a support group of people who are coping with this situation may be helpful.'
• B. 'You may be able to decrease your feelings of guilt by seeking counseling.'
• C. 'It would be helpful if you became involved in volunteer work at this time.'
• D. 'I recognize it's hard to deal with, but try to remember that this, too, shall pass.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Joining a support group of individuals facing similar circumstances can provide valuable support and the opportunity to share experiences, making it the most appropriate response. The response suggesting counseling to decrease feelings of guilt is premature because the partner did not directly express guilt and it may not be the most immediate need. Suggesting involvement in volunteer work at this time fails to address the partner's current emotional distress and may come across as dismissive. Offering false reassurance by stating 'this, too, shall pass' does not validate the partner's feelings and minimizes the seriousness of their concerns.

5. Urinary catheterization is prescribed for a postoperative female client who has been unable to void for 8 hours. The nurse inserts the catheter, but no urine is seen in the tubing. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Clamp the catheter and recheck it in 60 minutes.
• B. Pull the catheter back 3 inches and redirect upward.
• C. Leave the catheter in place and reattempt with another catheter.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider of a possible obstruction.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When no urine is seen in the tubing after inserting a catheter in a female client who has not voided for 8 hours, it is possible that the catheter is in the vagina rather than the bladder. Leaving the initial catheter in place can help locate the meatus for the second attempt. The client should have at least 240 mL of urine output after 8 hours, indicating the need for catheterization. Clamping the catheter (Option A) does not address the issue of incorrect catheter placement. Pulling the catheter back and redirecting it (Option B) is not effective unless the catheter is completely removed, requiring a new catheter. There is no indication of a urinary tract obstruction to notify the healthcare provider (Option D) as the catheter could be inserted easily.

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