which initial response would the nurse make to a 67 year old man with type 2 diabetes who sadly confides in the nurse that he has been unable to have
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions

1. Which initial response would the nurse make to a 67-year-old man with type 2 diabetes who sadly confides in the nurse that he has been unable to have an erection for several years?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is, 'You sound upset about not being able to have an erection.' When a client discloses personal information, the nurse should respond in a non-judgmental manner to encourage further communication and gather more details. This response demonstrates empathy and understanding, opening the door for the patient to express his feelings and concerns. Choice A, 'At your age, sex isn't that important,' is dismissive and fails to address the client's emotions or concerns, potentially hindering open communication. Choice B, 'That is a natural occurrence at your age,' provides inaccurate information as the inability to have an erection is not considered a normal part of aging. Choice D, 'Maybe it's time for you to speak to your primary health care provider about this,' while important eventually, should not be the initial response as the nurse should first explore the client's feelings and concerns before discussing potential referrals or interventions.

2. A woman who had a mastectomy is scheduled for a mastectomy peer support visit arranged by her primary health care provider. What is the purpose of the referral?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The purpose of a mastectomy peer support visit is to prevent social isolation. This visit helps the client maintain her social connections and learn about community resources. Teaching arm exercises and meeting physical needs are tasks for healthcare professionals, not the primary goal of a peer support visit. Viewing the surgical incision is also not the primary purpose of such a visit.

3. The client admitted for uncontrolled diabetes is worried about how to pay bills for the family while hospitalized. Which statement by the nurse is therapeutic?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The therapeutic communication technique used in this scenario is reflection. By repeating the client's concern, the nurse acknowledges the client's feelings and encourages further exploration of the topic. Choice A is correct as it reflects the client's worry without offering false assurance, advice, or using professional jargon. Choice B dismisses the client's concerns with false reassurance. Choice C introduces professional jargon, which may hinder effective communication. Choice D provides advice, which can limit the client's expression of feelings and concerns.

4. During the first meeting of a therapy group, members exhibit frequent periods of silence, tense laughter, and nervous movements. Which conclusion would the nurse make?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the initial stages of a therapy group, it is common for members to exhibit behaviors such as silence, tense laughter, and nervous movements. These behaviors indicate anxiety and insecurity due to the lack of established relationships and trust among the group members. This is a normal part of group development, and it does not necessarily mean that the group process is unhealthy. Intervening or addressing these behaviors immediately is not required as they are expected in the early stages of group interaction. As the group progresses and relationships are built, these behaviors are likely to diminish naturally without the need for active leader intervention. Therefore, the correct conclusion is that the members are displaying expected behaviors because relationships are not yet established. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because active leader intervention is not necessary, the group process is not unhealthy, and addressing the behaviors immediately is not required as they are part of the early group dynamics and are expected to subside as relationships develop.

5. A parent of a young child says, 'I'm so upset! The doctor prescribed an antidepressant!' Which response is best?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response in this situation is to express empathy and encourage the parent to share more about their concerns. Option A ('Tell me more about what's bothering you.') allows the nurse to show understanding and gather more information to address the parent's distress effectively. Option B ('Weren't you told about the need for the medication?') is confrontational and may make the parent defensive, hindering effective communication. Option C ('I'll notify the healthcare provider about your concerns.') is premature; the nurse should first assess the parent's feelings before deciding on further actions. Option D ('Maybe the medication is for attention deficit disorder.') assumes without clarification, which is not appropriate; the nurse should validate the prescription before suggesting alternative reasons.

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