NCLEX NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Preview Answers
1. After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?
- A. 72-year-old with cor pulmonale who has 4+ bilateral edema in his legs and feet
- B. 28-year-old with a history of a lung transplant and a temperature of 101 F (38.3 C)
- C. 40-year-old with a pleural effusion who is complaining of severe stabbing chest pain
- D. 64-year-old with lung cancer and tracheal deviation after subclavian catheter insertion
Correct answer: 64-year-old with lung cancer and tracheal deviation after subclavian catheter insertion
Rationale: The patient with lung cancer and tracheal deviation after a subclavian catheter insertion should be assessed first. Tracheal deviation can indicate tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention to prevent inadequate cardiac output or hypoxemia. While the other patients also need assessment, the potential for tension pneumothorax in the patient with tracheal deviation necessitates urgent attention to prevent complications.
2. A client must use a non-rebreathing oxygen mask. Which of the following statements is true regarding this type of mask?
- A. A non-rebreather can provide an FiO2 of 40%.
- B. A client should breathe through his or her mouth when using a non-rebreather.
- C. A non-rebreather offers a reservoir from which the client inhales.
- D. The mask of a non-rebreather should be changed every 3 hours.
Correct answer: A non-rebreather can provide an FiO2 of 40%.
Rationale: A non-rebreather mask is used for supplemental oxygen delivery for clients experiencing breathing difficulties. The non-rebreather mask includes a one-way valve that allows exhaled air to escape, preventing the rebreathing of carbon dioxide. The client inhales oxygenated air from a reservoir bag attached to the mask, providing high-concentration oxygen therapy. A non-rebreather mask can deliver FiO2 levels of up to 90%, making it an effective intervention for clients requiring high oxygen concentrations. Therefore, the statement that 'A non-rebreather can provide an FiO2 of 40%' is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because clients should breathe through their nose and mouth, the mask offers a reservoir for inhaling oxygen, and the mask should be assessed and potentially replaced if soiled or damaged, not routinely changed every 3 hours.
3. Which of the following statements best describes footdrop?
- A. The foot is permanently fixed in the dorsiflexion position
- B. The foot is permanently fixed in the plantar flexion position
- C. The toes of the foot are permanently fanned
- D. The heel of the foot is permanently rotated outward
Correct answer: The foot is permanently fixed in the plantar flexion position
Rationale: Footdrop results in the foot becoming permanently fixed in a plantar flexion position, not dorsiflexion. This position points the toes downward. The client may be unable to put weight on the foot, making ambulation difficult. Footdrop can be caused by immobility or chronic illnesses that cause muscle changes, such as multiple sclerosis or Parkinson's disease. Choice A is incorrect because footdrop leads to plantar flexion, not dorsiflexion. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different condition known as 'toe fanning.' Choice D is incorrect as it describes an external rotation of the heel, which is not a characteristic of footdrop.
4. A 28-year-old male has been found wandering around in a confusing pattern. The male is sweaty and pale. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed first?
- A. Blood sugar check
- B. CT scan
- C. Blood cultures
- D. Arterial blood gases
Correct answer: Blood sugar check
Rationale: In a 28-year-old male presenting with confusion, sweating, and pallor, the most likely cause is hypoglycemia, especially with no mention of trauma or infection. Therefore, the initial test to be performed should be a blood sugar check to rule out low blood sugar levels. Checking blood sugar levels is crucial in such a scenario as hypoglycemia can lead to altered mental status. A CT scan (choice B) is not typically the initial test for altered mental status without any focal neurological signs or head trauma. Blood cultures (choice C) are more relevant in cases suspected of infection, which is not a primary concern in this scenario. Arterial blood gases (choice D) may be considered later if there are concerns about respiratory status or acid-base disturbances, but in this case, checking the blood sugar level is the most immediate and appropriate action.
5. Which of the following interventions should be prioritized in the care of the suicidal client?
- A. Remove all potentially harmful items from the client’s room
- B. Allow the client to express feelings of hopelessness
- C. Note the client’s capabilities to increase self esteem
- D. Set a “no suicide” contract with the client
Correct answer: Remove all potentially harmful items from the client’s room
Rationale: accessibility of the means of suicide increases the lethality. Allowing a patient to express feelings and setting a no suicide contract are interventions for suicidal client but blocking the means of suicide is priority. Increasing self esteem is an intervention for depressed clients but not specifically for suicide.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX Basic
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
NCLEX Basic
- 5,000 Questions and answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX Coverage
- 90 days access @ $69.99