NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. A 60-year-old patient has been treated for pneumonia for the past 6 weeks. The patient is seen today in the clinic for an unexplained weight loss of 10 pounds over the last 6 weeks. Which is an appropriate rationale for this patient's weight loss?
- A. Chronic diseases such as hypertension do not usually cause weight loss.
- B. Weight loss is more likely due to underlying medical conditions than unhealthy eating habits.
- C. Unexplained weight loss often accompanies short-term illnesses.
- D. Weight loss is not typically caused by mental health dysfunctions.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Unexplained weight loss in a patient with pneumonia could indicate an underlying short-term illness or a chronic condition like endocrine disease, malignancy, depression, anorexia nervosa, or bulimia. Hypertension is not commonly associated with weight loss; it usually leads to weight gain due to fluid retention. Unhealthy eating habits are less likely to explain significant unexplained weight loss over a short period. Mental health dysfunctions can affect appetite but are not typically primary causes of significant unexplained weight loss.
2. Which of the following descriptors is most appropriate to use when stating the 'problem' part of a nursing diagnosis?
- A. Grimacing
- B. Anxiety
- C. Oxygenation saturation 93%
- D. Output 500 mL in 8 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The problem part of a nursing diagnosis in the context of nursing care plans should focus on the client's response to a life process, event, or stressor. This response is what is used to identify the nursing diagnosis. 'Anxiety' is the most appropriate descriptor for the problem part of a nursing diagnosis as it reflects a psychological response that can be addressed by nursing interventions. 'Grimacing' is a physical manifestation and not the problem itself. 'Oxygenation saturation 93%' and 'Output 500 mL in 8 hours' are data points or cues that a nurse would use to formulate the nursing diagnostic statement, not the actual problem being addressed.
3. Madge is a 91-year-old nursing home resident with a history of dementia and atrial fibrillation who has been admitted to the hospital for treatment of pneumonia. As you are performing her bed bath, you note bruising around her breasts and genital area. What potential issue should be of major concern in Madge's situation?
- A. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
- B. Embolic stroke
- C. Sexual abuse
- D. Nursing home-acquired pneumonia (NHAP)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Bruising around the breasts and genitals should trigger concern for sexual abuse. Elder abuse is a growing problem in America, and nurses are uniquely positioned to recognize and intervene on behalf of vulnerable populations, such as the elderly. According to the National Center on Elder Abuse (NCEA), major types of elder abuse include physical abuse, sexual abuse, emotional or psychological abuse, neglect, abandonment, financial or material exploitation, and self-neglect. In this scenario, given Madge's age, history of dementia, and the presence of unexplained bruising in sensitive areas, sexual abuse must be considered as a major concern. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a platelet disorder that presents with excessive bruising and bleeding, but it is less likely in this case as the bruising pattern is suggestive of a different cause. Embolic stroke is a neurological condition that typically presents with sudden onset neurological deficits and is not related to the observed bruising. Nursing home-acquired pneumonia (NHAP) is a common issue in elderly residents but would not manifest as bruising in specific areas like the breasts and genitals.
4. After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?
- A. 72-year-old with cor pulmonale who has 4+ bilateral edema in his legs and feet
- B. 28-year-old with a history of a lung transplant and a temperature of 101 F (38.3 C)
- C. 40-year-old with a pleural effusion who is complaining of severe stabbing chest pain
- D. 64-year-old with lung cancer and tracheal deviation after subclavian catheter insertion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The patient with lung cancer and tracheal deviation after a subclavian catheter insertion should be assessed first. Tracheal deviation can indicate tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention to prevent inadequate cardiac output or hypoxemia. While the other patients also need assessment, the potential for tension pneumothorax in the patient with tracheal deviation necessitates urgent attention to prevent complications.
5. Which of the following organs would be described as being located retroperitoneally?
- A. Kidneys
- B. Thymus
- C. Small Intestines
- D. Spleen
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The term 'retroperitoneal' refers to organs positioned behind the peritoneum. The kidneys are retroperitoneal organs, located outside the peritoneal cavity, against the posterior abdominal wall. This positioning provides them with additional protection from external forces due to the surrounding structures. The thymus, small intestines, and spleen are not retroperitoneal organs. The thymus is located in the mediastinum, the small intestines are intraperitoneal, and the spleen is intraperitoneal and located in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen.
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