Nursing Elites

1. A 60-year-old patient has been treated for pneumonia for the past 6 weeks. The patient is seen today in the clinic for an unexplained weight loss of 10 pounds over the last 6 weeks. Which is an appropriate rationale for this patient's weight loss?

• A. Chronic diseases such as hypertension do not usually cause weight loss.
• B. Weight loss is more likely due to underlying medical conditions than unhealthy eating habits.
• C. Unexplained weight loss often accompanies short-term illnesses.
• D. Weight loss is not typically caused by mental health dysfunctions.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Unexplained weight loss in a patient with pneumonia could indicate an underlying short-term illness or a chronic condition like endocrine disease, malignancy, depression, anorexia nervosa, or bulimia. Hypertension is not commonly associated with weight loss; it usually leads to weight gain due to fluid retention. Unhealthy eating habits are less likely to explain significant unexplained weight loss over a short period. Mental health dysfunctions can affect appetite but are not typically primary causes of significant unexplained weight loss.

2. When educating a client about their new prescription for warfarin, what should the nurse advise?

• A. To have his white blood cell count tested once a month
• B. To avoid any activities that could lead to injury
• C. To avoid eating leafy green vegetables
• D. Both A and B

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid any activities that could lead to injury when taking warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that decreases blood clotting, increasing the risk of bleeding. Engaging in activities that may result in injury can lead to uncontrolled bleeding, which can be serious. While monitoring white blood cell count is not specifically related to warfarin therapy, avoiding leafy green vegetables is important due to their vitamin K content, which can interfere with warfarin's effectiveness. Therefore, the client should be educated to avoid activities that could cause injury to prevent potential bleeding complications.

3. When assessing a pulse, what should be noted?

• A. Rate
• B. Rate and quality
• C. Rate, quality, and fullness
• D. Rate, quality, fullness, and regularity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing a pulse, it is important to note the rate (number of beats per minute), quality (regular or irregular), and fullness (thread and weak or full and bounding). These aspects provide crucial information about the patient's cardiovascular status. Regularity, as mentioned in option D, is not typically assessed during a pulse check and is not necessary for routine pulse assessment. Choice A is too limited as it overlooks important aspects beyond just the rate. Choice B improves by adding quality but still lacks the fullness aspect. Choice C is the most comprehensive and accurate as it includes all three essential aspects for a thorough pulse assessment.

4. Which of the following is an example of a positive effect of exercise on a client?

• A. Decreased basal metabolic rate
• B. Decreased venous return
• C. Decreased work of breathing
• D. Decreased gastric motility

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Decreased work of breathing.' Exercise has numerous positive effects on clients, such as increasing metabolic rate, improving gastric motility, and enhancing venous return. When a client exercises regularly, their work of breathing decreases, meaning that everyday activities require less exertion. This is beneficial as it indicates improved cardiovascular and respiratory efficiency. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a decreased basal metabolic rate, decreased venous return, and decreased gastric motility are not typically considered positive effects of exercise. Instead, an increased basal metabolic rate, improved venous return, and optimal gastric motility are desired outcomes associated with physical activity.

5. Which of the following is the correct sequence for removing personal protective equipment?

• A. Remove gown, gloves, shoe covers, mask
• B. Remove mask, gloves, gown, shoe covers
• C. Remove gloves, gown, mask, shoe covers
• D. Remove shoe covers, mask, gloves, gown

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct sequence for removing personal protective equipment is crucial to prevent contamination. When exiting a surgical or aseptic situation, the proper sequence is to first remove gloves, followed by the gown, mask, and finally shoe covers. This order ensures that potentially contaminated items are removed first, minimizing the risk of exposure. Choice A, 'Remove gown, gloves, shoe covers, mask,' is incorrect as gloves should be removed before the gown. Choice B, 'Remove mask, gloves, gown, shoe covers,' is incorrect as gloves should be removed first. Choice D, 'Remove shoe covers, mask, gloves, gown,' is incorrect as gloves should be the first item removed to prevent contamination.

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