Nursing Elites

1. When planning a cultural assessment, what component should the nurse include?

• A. Family history
• B. Chief complaint
• C. Medical history
• D. Health practices

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When conducting a cultural assessment, it is essential to include the patient's health practices. Health practices encompass the beliefs, values, and behaviors related to health and illness within a specific cultural context. These practices provide insight into how individuals perceive and manage their health. Family history, chief complaint, and medical history are crucial components of a patient's overall assessment but do not directly relate to a cultural assessment. Focusing on health practices allows the nurse to better understand the patient's cultural background and tailor care to meet their specific needs.

2. During change-of-shift report, the nurse learns about the following four patients. Which patient requires assessment first?

• A. 40-year-old with chronic pancreatitis who has gnawing abdominal pain
• B. 58-year-old who has compensated cirrhosis and is complaining of anorexia
• C. 55-year-old with cirrhosis and ascites who has an oral temperature of 102°F (38.8°C)
• D. 36-year-old recovering from a laparoscopic cholecystectomy who has severe shoulder pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When prioritizing patient assessments, the nurse should address the patient with cirrhosis and ascites who has an elevated oral temperature of 102°F (38.8°C) first. This presentation suggests a potential infection, which is critical to address promptly in a patient with liver disease. An infection in a patient with cirrhosis can quickly progress to severe complications. The other options, such as chronic pancreatitis with abdominal pain, compensated cirrhosis with anorexia, and post-laparoscopic cholecystectomy with shoulder pain, do not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation requiring urgent assessment compared to a possible infection in a patient with cirrhosis and ascites.

3. Which of the following descriptors is most appropriate to use when stating the 'problem' part of a nursing diagnosis?

• A. Grimacing
• B. Anxiety
• C. Oxygenation saturation 93%
• D. Output 500 mL in 8 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The problem part of a nursing diagnosis in the context of nursing care plans should focus on the client's response to a life process, event, or stressor. This response is what is used to identify the nursing diagnosis. 'Anxiety' is the most appropriate descriptor for the problem part of a nursing diagnosis as it reflects a psychological response that can be addressed by nursing interventions. 'Grimacing' is a physical manifestation and not the problem itself. 'Oxygenation saturation 93%' and 'Output 500 mL in 8 hours' are data points or cues that a nurse would use to formulate the nursing diagnostic statement, not the actual problem being addressed.

4. What are Korotkoff sounds?

• A. Sounds noted during diastole.
• B. The result of the vibration of blood against artery walls while blood pressure readings are being taken.
• C. Sounds only noted by skilled cardiologists.
• D. Distinct sounds which are classified into 6 phases.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Korotkoff sounds are the sounds that occur when blood flows in an artery that has been temporarily compressed during a blood pressure measurement. These sounds result from the vibration of blood against the artery walls as the pressure cuff is released. There are five distinct phases of Korotkoff sounds, which healthcare providers are trained to identify during blood pressure assessment. The correct answer, choice B, accurately describes the nature of Korotkoff sounds and how they are generated. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Korotkoff sounds are not specific to diastole, not limited to skilled cardiologists, and categorized into five phases, not six.

5. Which of the following statements best describes footdrop?

• A. The foot is permanently fixed in the dorsiflexion position
• B. The foot is permanently fixed in the plantar flexion position
• C. The toes of the foot are permanently fanned
• D. The heel of the foot is permanently rotated outward

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Footdrop results in the foot becoming permanently fixed in a plantar flexion position, not dorsiflexion. This position points the toes downward. The client may be unable to put weight on the foot, making ambulation difficult. Footdrop can be caused by immobility or chronic illnesses that cause muscle changes, such as multiple sclerosis or Parkinson's disease. Choice A is incorrect because footdrop leads to plantar flexion, not dorsiflexion. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different condition known as 'toe fanning.' Choice D is incorrect as it describes an external rotation of the heel, which is not a characteristic of footdrop.

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