Nursing Elites

1. The hospital has sounded the call for a disaster drill on the evening shift. Which of these clients would the nurse prioritize first on the list to be discharged in order to make a room available for a new admission?

• A. A middle-aged client with a history of being ventilator dependent for over seven (7) years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago.
• B. A young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 for over ten (10) years and admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago.
• C. An elderly client with a history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and lupus, and was admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome that morning.
• D. An adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best candidate for discharge during a need for emergency room availability is a stable patient with a chronic condition who is familiar with their care. In this scenario, the middle-aged client in option A, who has been ventilator dependent for over seven years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago, is most suitable for discharge. This client is likely stable and can continue medication therapy at home, making them the most appropriate choice for discharge at this time. Choice B should not be the priority for discharge as the young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago may need further monitoring and management of their condition. Choice C, the elderly client with multiple comorbidities and admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome on the same day, is not a suitable candidate for immediate discharge as they may require ongoing medical attention and observation. Choice D, the adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago, should not be discharged first as acute cellulitis may require continued treatment and monitoring, especially in the context of a positive HIV status.

2. Which of the following is recommended by Joint Commission guidelines regarding the use of restraints?

• A. Vest restraints should be used because they are the least restrictive type.
• B. Restraints should be used for 48 hours in non-psychiatric patients.
• C. Restraints should be applied to prevent wandering behavior.
• D. Alternative measures must be attempted first.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When considering the use of restraints, Joint Commission guidelines emphasize the importance of attempting alternative measures before resorting to restraint application. This ensures that a comprehensive assessment is conducted and less restrictive interventions are explored. Using restraints solely based on their perceived level of restrictiveness, as stated in choice A, is not in line with the recommended approach. Restraints should not be used to manage wandering behavior, as indicated in choice C. Additionally, the statement in choice B regarding the duration of restraint use is inaccurate, as restraints on non-psychiatric patients should not exceed 24 hours according to The Joint Commission.

3. You are working the 8 am to 4 pm shift. You begin to vomit at 3 pm and you do not think that you are able to continue working. You decide to immediately go home without notifying your RN supervisor. You have ________________.

• A. enough sick time, so this is not a problem.
• B. finished all your work, so this is not a problem.
• C. seriously abandoned the patients.
• D. seriously abused and neglected the patients.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Patient abandonment is a serious violation that can lead to disciplinary action and immediate termination of employment. It is defined as leaving patients without proper consent from the supervisor. In this scenario, leaving work without notifying the RN supervisor and potentially leaving patients unattended is considered patient abandonment, as it compromises patient safety and care. Choices A and B are incorrect because having sick time or finishing work does not justify leaving without proper protocol. Choice D is incorrect as the scenario does not indicate abuse or neglect towards the patients.

4. Which of the following may represent an upper airway obstruction?

• A. Retractions
• B. Elongated expiratory phase
• C. Stridor
• D. Expiratory wheezing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Stridor is the sound produced by turbulent airflow through a partially obstructed upper airway. It is a classic sign of upper airway obstruction. While an elongated expiratory phase may indicate lower airway obstruction, stridor specifically points to an upper airway issue. Retractions are also often seen in upper airway obstruction due to the increased effort of breathing. Expiratory wheezing, on the other hand, is more indicative of lower airway conditions such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

5. Which principle of body mechanics may help to reduce the risk of a back injury?

• A. Maintain a wide base of support
• B. Bend from the knees, not the waist
• C. Keep the back straight while lifting
• D. Push or pull objects rather than lifting

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Proper body mechanics are crucial to prevent injuries, especially for professions involving lifting and moving objects. Keeping the back straight while lifting is essential to reduce the risk of back injuries as it helps maintain the spine's natural alignment and prevents excessive strain on the back muscles. Choosing choices A, B, and D would increase the risk of back injury. Maintaining a wide base of support provides stability, bending from the knees instead of the waist protects the lower back, and pushing or pulling objects reduces the strain on the back muscles, all contributing to preventing back injuries.

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