Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is taking an initial blood pressure reading on a 72-year-old patient with documented hypertension. How should the nurse proceed?

• A. Cuff should be placed on the patient's arm and inflated 30 mm Hg above the point at which the palpated pulse disappears.
• B. Cuff should be inflated to 200 mm Hg in an attempt to obtain the most accurate systolic reading.
• C. Cuff should be inflated 30 mm Hg above the patient's pulse rate.
• D. After confirming the patient's previous blood pressure readings, the cuff should be inflated 30 mm Hg above the highest systolic reading recorded.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When measuring blood pressure, it's important to account for the possibility of an auscultatory gap, which occurs in about 5% of individuals, particularly those with hypertension due to a noncompliant arterial system. To detect an auscultatory gap, the cuff should be inflated 20 to 30 mm Hg beyond the point at which the palpated pulse disappears. This ensures an accurate measurement of blood pressure by overcoming the potential gap in sounds. Choice A is correct as it follows this guideline. Choices B and C are incorrect because inflating the cuff to 200 mm Hg or above the patient's pulse rate does not address the specific issue of an auscultatory gap. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on the patient's previous readings rather than the current measurement technique needed to detect an auscultatory gap.

2. Which of these statements is true regarding the use of Standard Precautions in the healthcare setting?

• A. Standard Precautions apply to all body fluids, except sweat.
• B. Alcohol-based hand rub should be used if hands are not visibly dirty.
• C. Standard Precautions are intended for use with all patients, regardless of their risk or presumed infection status.
• D. Standard Precautions are to be used only when non-intact skin, excretions containing visible blood, or expected contact with mucous membranes are present.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Standard Precautions are designed to reduce the risk for transmission of microorganisms from both recognized and unrecognized sources. They are intended for use with all patients, regardless of their risk or presumed infection status. Standard Precautions apply to all body fluids, secretions, and excretions except sweat - whether or not they contain visible blood, non-intact skin, or mucous membranes. Hands should be washed with soap and water if visibly soiled with blood or body fluids. Alcohol-based hand rubs can be used if hands are not visibly soiled. Choice A is incorrect because Standard Precautions apply to all body fluids, secretions, and excretions except sweat. Choice B is incorrect because alcohol-based hand rub should be used when hands are not visibly dirty. Choice D is incorrect because Standard Precautions are not limited to situations involving non-intact skin, excretions with visible blood, or expected mucous membrane contact.

3. A registered nurse who usually works in a spinal rehabilitation unit is floated to the emergency department. Which of these clients should the charge nurse assign to this RN?

• A. A middle-aged client who says, "I took too many diet pills"? and "my heart feels like it is racing out of my chest."?
• B. A young adult who says, "I hear songs from heaven. I need money for beer. I quit drinking two (2) days ago for my family. Why are my arms and legs jerking?"?
• C. An adolescent who has been on pain medications for terminal cancer with an initial assessment finding of pinpoint pupils and a relaxed respiratory rate of 11.
• D. An elderly client who reports having taken a "large crack hit"? 10 minutes prior to walking into the emergency room.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assigning a floated nurse from another unit to a client in the emergency department, the goal is to choose a patient with minimal anticipated immediate complications. In this scenario, the adolescent with terminal cancer who has been on pain medications and presents with pinpoint pupils and a relaxed respiratory rate of 11 is the most stable option. These assessment findings indicate opioid toxicity, which, while serious, has the least risk of immediate complications compared to the other clients. Choice A involves a middle-aged client experiencing symptoms of possible cardiac issues due to diet pill overdose, which requires urgent intervention. Choice B presents a young adult with concerning symptoms of potential psychosis or substance withdrawal, requiring immediate attention. Choice D involves an elderly client who recently used crack, posing a high-risk situation that requires prompt evaluation and intervention. Therefore, the correct choice is the adolescent with opioid toxicity, as this client has the least immediate risk of complications among the options provided.

4. While explaining an illness to a 10-year-old, what should the nurse keep in mind about the cognitive development at this age?

• A. They are able to make simple associations of ideas
• B. They are able to think logically in organizing facts
• C. Interpretation of events originates from their own perspective
• D. Conclusions are based on previous experiences

Correct answer: B

Rationale: At the age of 10, children are in the concrete operations stage according to Piaget. They are capable of mature thought when allowed to manipulate and organize objects. This means they can think logically, organize facts, and understand cause-and-effect relationships. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While simple associations of ideas may occur, the key cognitive ability at this stage is the capacity for logical thought and organization of information. Interpretation of events from their own perspective is more characteristic of younger children, and conclusions based on previous experiences are more aligned with older children or adults.

5. The UAP who has just been accepted to nursing school says to a client, 'You must be so pleased with your progress.' The nurse later explains to the UAP that this is an example of what type of question?

• A. Close-ended question
• B. Open-ended question
• C. Leading question
• D. Neutral question

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The statement 'You must be so pleased with your progress' is an example of a leading question. Leading questions guide the respondent towards a particular answer or response, potentially biasing the data collected. In this scenario, the UAP's question implies that the client should be pleased with their progress, steering the client's response. Closed-ended questions typically elicit brief factual responses or a 'yes' or 'no.' Open-ended questions encourage clients to provide detailed responses and share their thoughts and feelings freely. Neutral questions do not lead or influence the client's response, allowing for unbiased information gathering.

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