Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is taking an initial blood pressure reading on a 72-year-old patient with documented hypertension. How should the nurse proceed?

• A. Cuff should be placed on the patient's arm and inflated 30 mm Hg above the point at which the palpated pulse disappears.
• B. Cuff should be inflated to 200 mm Hg in an attempt to obtain the most accurate systolic reading.
• C. Cuff should be inflated 30 mm Hg above the patient's pulse rate.
• D. After confirming the patient's previous blood pressure readings, the cuff should be inflated 30 mm Hg above the highest systolic reading recorded.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When measuring blood pressure, it's important to account for the possibility of an auscultatory gap, which occurs in about 5% of individuals, particularly those with hypertension due to a noncompliant arterial system. To detect an auscultatory gap, the cuff should be inflated 20 to 30 mm Hg beyond the point at which the palpated pulse disappears. This ensures an accurate measurement of blood pressure by overcoming the potential gap in sounds. Choice A is correct as it follows this guideline. Choices B and C are incorrect because inflating the cuff to 200 mm Hg or above the patient's pulse rate does not address the specific issue of an auscultatory gap. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on the patient's previous readings rather than the current measurement technique needed to detect an auscultatory gap.

2. What would be an appropriate evaluation statement for the nurse to write based on the client's ability to state only two signs of impaired circulation out of three as expected?

• A. Client understands the signs of impaired circulation
• B. Goal met: Client cited numbness and tingling as a sign of impaired circulation
• C. Goal not met: Client able to name only two signs of impaired circulation
• D. Goal not met: Client unable to describe signs of impaired circulation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The appropriate evaluation statement for the nurse to write would be 'Goal not met: Client able to name only two signs of impaired circulation.' In this scenario, the client has only identified two out of the three signs of impaired circulation specified in the desired outcome. Therefore, the goal has not been fully achieved. It is essential in nursing practice to assess and document client progress accurately. While the client has shown some understanding by correctly identifying numbness and tingling as signs of impaired circulation, the inability to state the third sign indicates an incomplete achievement of the goal. This evaluation helps guide further interventions or educational strategies to help the client meet the desired outcome in the care plan.

3. A client with expressive aphasia is pointing wildly at the bath water but unable to speak. Which response from the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Is something wrong with the bath water?
• B. Just calm down, we'll finish your bath soon.
• C. Are you trying to tell me something?
• D. Shall I turn on the television?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A client with expressive aphasia faces difficulty expressing themselves verbally but can understand others. In this scenario, the client's gestures indicate a communication attempt. The nurse's best response is to directly address the potential issue the client is indicating, which is the bath water. Option A acknowledges the client's non-verbal communication and seeks to address their concern. Choices B, C, and D do not directly address the client's attempt to communicate about the bath water, which is the focal point of the interaction.

4. The nurse is teaching a student nurse about the different types of thermometers. When teaching the student about the advantages of the tympanic membrane thermometer (TMT), which statement would the nurse include?

• A. "Measuring temperature using the TMT is cost-effective."?
• B. "The rapid measurement of the TMT is beneficial for uncooperative younger children."?
• C. "TMT is not recommended for measuring core body temperature in newborn infants."?
• D. "TMT is not the preferred method for measuring body temperature in patients with otitis media."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is "The rapid measurement of the TMT is beneficial for uncooperative younger children." TMT is ideal for young children who may not cooperate for oral temperatures or fear rectal temperatures. However, using TMT for newborn infants is not recommended due to inconsistencies in results. Measuring temperature with TMT is not necessarily cost-effective. The most accurate method for measuring core temperature is through rectal temperatures. TMT may not be the preferred method for patients with otitis media due to potential inaccuracies caused by fluid behind the tympanic membrane.

5. The hospital has sounded the call for a disaster drill on the evening shift. Which of these clients would the nurse prioritize first on the list to be discharged in order to make a room available for a new admission?

• A. A middle-aged client with a history of being ventilator dependent for over seven (7) years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago.
• B. A young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 for over ten (10) years and admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago.
• C. An elderly client with a history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and lupus, and was admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome that morning.
• D. An adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best candidate for discharge during a need for emergency room availability is a stable patient with a chronic condition who is familiar with their care. In this scenario, the middle-aged client in option A, who has been ventilator dependent for over seven years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago, is most suitable for discharge. This client is likely stable and can continue medication therapy at home, making them the most appropriate choice for discharge at this time. Choice B should not be the priority for discharge as the young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago may need further monitoring and management of their condition. Choice C, the elderly client with multiple comorbidities and admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome on the same day, is not a suitable candidate for immediate discharge as they may require ongoing medical attention and observation. Choice D, the adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago, should not be discharged first as acute cellulitis may require continued treatment and monitoring, especially in the context of a positive HIV status.

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