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NCLEX RN Exam Preview Answers
1. The healthcare professional is preparing to use a stethoscope for auscultation. Which statement is true regarding the diaphragm of the stethoscope?
- A. Used to listen for high-pitched sounds
- B. Used to listen for low-pitched sounds
- C. Should be firmly held against the person’s skin to block out low-pitched sounds
- D. Should be lightly held against the person’s skin to listen for extra heart sounds and murmurs
Correct answer: Used to listen for high-pitched sounds
Rationale: The diaphragm of the stethoscope is designed for listening to high-pitched sounds like breath, bowel, and normal heart sounds. It should be firmly held against the person’s skin to ensure optimal sound transmission, leaving a ring after use. On the other hand, the bell of the stethoscope is ideal for detecting soft, low-pitched sounds such as extra heart sounds or murmurs. Therefore, the diaphragm is not used to block out low-pitched sounds but rather to enhance the detection of high-frequency sounds.
2. When examining an older adult, which technique should the nurse use?
- A. Minimize touching the patient as much as possible.
- B. Attempt to perform the entire physical examination during one visit.
- C. Speak loudly and slowly due to potential hearing deficits in aging adults.
- D. Arrange the sequence of the examination to allow as few position changes as possible.
Correct answer: D: Arrange the sequence of the examination to allow as few position changes as possible.
Rationale: When examining an older adult, it is crucial to arrange the sequence of the examination to minimize position changes. This helps prevent discomfort and fatigue for the older adult, who may have mobility issues. Option A is incorrect because physical touch is essential when examining older adults, as their other senses may be diminished. Option B is incorrect as it is better to break the examination into multiple visits to ensure thoroughness and comfort. Option C is incorrect because while some older adults may have hearing deficits, it is not appropriate to assume this for all individuals without proper assessment.
3. An older adult patient brought to the emergency department by a family member is wandering outside, saying, “I can’t find my way home.” The patient is confused and unable to answer questions. What is the nurse’s best action?
- A. Document the patient’s mental status and obtain other assessment data from the family member.
- B. Record the patient’s answers to questions on the nursing assessment form.
- C. Ask an advanced practice nurse to perform the assessment interview.
- D. Call for a mental health advocate to maintain the patient’s rights.
Correct answer: A: Document the patient’s mental status and obtain other assessment data from the family member.
Rationale: In this scenario, the patient is confused and unable to answer questions. When the patient is unable to provide information, it is important to use secondary sources such as family members. The nurse's best action is to document the patient's mental status and obtain additional assessment data from the family member. This approach will help gather relevant information about the patient's condition. Asking an advanced practice nurse to perform the assessment interview is not necessary as it is within the staff nurse's scope of practice. Calling for a mental health advocate is also unnecessary at this point as the priority is to assess the patient's condition and gather information from the family member.
4. A client has entered disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) after becoming extremely ill after surgery. Which of the following laboratory findings would the nurse expect to see with this client?
- A. Elevated fibrinogen level
- B. Prolonged PT
- C. Elevated platelet count
- D. Depressed d-dimer level
Correct answer: Prolonged PT
Rationale: In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a client experiences widespread clotting throughout the body, leading to the depletion of clotting factors and platelets. A prolonged prothrombin time (PT) is a common finding in DIC. The PT measures the extrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and reflects how quickly blood can clot. In DIC, the consumption of clotting factors results in a prolonged PT, indicating impaired clotting ability. Elevated fibrinogen levels (Choice A) are typically seen in the early stages of DIC due to the body's attempt to compensate for clot breakdown. Elevated platelet count (Choice C) is not a typical finding in DIC as platelets are consumed during the widespread clotting. A depressed d-dimer level (Choice D) is also not expected in DIC as d-dimer levels are elevated due to the breakdown of fibrin clots. Therefore, the correct answer is a prolonged PT.
5. Which mental health disorder is most likely to be treated with electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?
- A. Clinical depression
- B. Substance abuse disorder
- C. Antisocial personality disorder
- D. Psychosis occurring in schizophrenia
Correct answer: A: Clinical depression
Rationale: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is commonly used to treat severe cases of clinical depression in individuals who have not responded well to psychotropic medications or when immediate intervention is necessary due to the severity of the depression. ECT is not typically a first-line treatment for substance abuse disorders, antisocial personality disorder, or psychosis occurring in schizophrenia. Clients with clinical depression who meet specific criteria and have not benefited from other treatments may be considered for ECT to alleviate symptoms and improve overall functioning.
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