Nursing Elites

1. What type of blood pressure measurement error is most likely to occur if the nurse does not check for the presence of an auscultatory gap?

• A. Diastolic blood pressure may not be heard.
• B. Diastolic blood pressure may be falsely low.
• C. Systolic blood pressure may be falsely low.
• D. Systolic blood pressure may be falsely high.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: If an auscultatory gap is undetected, a falsely low systolic reading may occur. This gap can lead to an underestimation of the systolic blood pressure, causing potential misinterpretation of the patient's condition. The diastolic blood pressure may not be heard due to the gap, but the critical issue in this scenario is the risk of underestimating systolic blood pressure, which can impact clinical decision-making. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the key concern in this context is the potential for a falsely low systolic blood pressure reading when an auscultatory gap is not assessed.

2. The nurse is conducting a health fair for older adults. Which statement is true regarding vital sign measurements in aging adults?

• A. The pulse is easier to palpate due to the rigidity of the blood vessels.
• B. An increased respiratory rate and a shallower inspiratory phase are expected findings.
• C. A widened pulse pressure occurs from changes in the systolic and diastolic blood pressures.
• D. Changes in the body's temperature regulatory mechanism decrease the older adult's likelihood of developing a fever.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Aging causes a decrease in vital capacity and decreased inspiratory reserve volume. As a result, the examiner may observe a shallower inspiratory phase and an increased respiratory rate in older adults. Contrary to common belief, the increased rigidity of arterial walls actually makes the pulse easier to palpate in aging adults. Pulse pressure is widened, not decreased, due to changes in systolic and diastolic blood pressures. Furthermore, changes in the body's temperature regulatory mechanism make older individuals less likely to develop a fever but more susceptible to hypothermia.

3. When preparing a patient on complete bed rest to eat, at what degree angle or more should you put the head of the bed up?

• A. 10
• B. 15
• C. 20
• D. 30

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 30. When a patient is on complete bed rest, it is essential to elevate the head of the bed at a 30-degree angle or more before meals. This position helps prevent choking and aspiration of food during eating by promoting proper swallowing and digestion. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not provide the optimal elevation needed to support safe and effective feeding for a patient on complete bed rest.

4. You are working the 8 am to 4 pm shift. You begin to vomit at 3 pm and you do not think that you are able to continue working. You decide to immediately go home without notifying your RN supervisor. You have ________________.

• A. enough sick time, so this is not a problem.
• B. finished all your work, so this is not a problem.
• C. seriously abandoned the patients.
• D. seriously abused and neglected the patients.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Patient abandonment is a serious violation that can lead to disciplinary action and immediate termination of employment. It is defined as leaving patients without proper consent from the supervisor. In this scenario, leaving work without notifying the RN supervisor and potentially leaving patients unattended is considered patient abandonment, as it compromises patient safety and care. Choices A and B are incorrect because having sick time or finishing work does not justify leaving without proper protocol. Choice D is incorrect as the scenario does not indicate abuse or neglect towards the patients.

5. While performing CPR, a healthcare provider encounters a client with a large amount of thick chest hair when preparing to use an automated external defibrillator (AED). What is the next appropriate action for the healthcare provider?

• A. Apply the pads to the chest and provide a shock
• B. Wipe the client's chest down with a towel before applying the pads
• C. Shave the client's chest to remove the hair
• D. Do not use the AED

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When using an AED, it is crucial for the pads to have good contact with the skin to effectively deliver an electrical shock. While AED pads can adhere to a client's chest even with some hair, thick chest hair can hinder proper current conduction. In such cases, it is recommended to shave the area of the chest where the pads will be applied. Most AED kits include a razor for this purpose. The healthcare provider should act promptly to minimize delays in defibrillation. Option A is incorrect because it may lead to ineffective treatment due to poor pad adherence. Option B is not the best course of action as wiping the chest may not resolve the issue of poor pad contact. Option D is incorrect as not using the AED could jeopardize the client's chance of survival in a cardiac emergency.

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