Nursing Elites

1. What type of blood pressure measurement error is most likely to occur if the nurse does not check for the presence of an auscultatory gap?

• A. Diastolic blood pressure may not be heard.
• B. Diastolic blood pressure may be falsely low.
• C. Systolic blood pressure may be falsely low.
• D. Systolic blood pressure may be falsely high.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: If an auscultatory gap is undetected, a falsely low systolic reading may occur. This gap can lead to an underestimation of the systolic blood pressure, causing potential misinterpretation of the patient's condition. The diastolic blood pressure may not be heard due to the gap, but the critical issue in this scenario is the risk of underestimating systolic blood pressure, which can impact clinical decision-making. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the key concern in this context is the potential for a falsely low systolic blood pressure reading when an auscultatory gap is not assessed.

2. A 1-month-old infant has a head measurement of 34 cm and a chest circumference of 32 cm. Based on the interpretation of these findings, what action would the nurse take?

• A. Refer the infant to a physician for further evaluation.
• B. Consider these findings normal for a 1-month-old infant.
• C. Expect the chest circumference to be greater than the head circumference.
• D. Ask the parent to return in 2 weeks to re-evaluate the head and chest circumferences.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In infants, a normal head measurement is approximately 32 to 38 cm, and it is usually around 2 cm larger than the chest circumference. These measurements vary with age; between 6 months and 2 years, both measurements are approximately the same, and after age 2 years, the chest circumference becomes greater than the head circumference. Given that the 1-month-old infant's head measurement is within the typical range and slightly larger than the chest circumference, the nurse should consider these findings normal. There is no indication to refer the infant for further evaluation or to have the parent return for re-evaluation in 2 weeks, as these measurements fall within the expected parameters for a 1-month-old infant.

3. When would chest thrusts be performed in an emergency situation?

• A. When performing CPR to initiate cardiovascular circulation.
• B. When assessing responsiveness of an unconscious patient.
• C. When assisting a pregnant woman who is choking.
• D. None of the above examples indicate the need for chest thrusts.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the scenario of an emergency where a pregnant woman is choking, chest thrusts are performed to clear the airway obstruction. This technique is used instead of abdominal thrusts to avoid potential harm to the fetus. While chest thrusts are not as effective as abdominal thrusts in clearing obstructions, they are the preferred method in this specific situation. Choices A and B are incorrect as chest thrusts are not typically performed during CPR to initiate cardiovascular circulation or when assessing responsiveness of an unconscious patient. Choice D is incorrect as chest thrusts are indeed warranted when assisting a pregnant woman who is choking.

4. Which of the following bony landmarks is described as a large, blunt, irregularly shaped process found on the lateral aspect of the proximal femur?

• A. Tubercle
• B. Tuberosity
• C. Condyle
• D. Trochanter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Trochanter. The Greater Trochanter is located on the lateral aspect of the proximal femur and is a large, blunt, irregularly shaped bony process. It serves as an important attachment site for many muscles of the legs, providing leverage and movement. Choice A, Tubercle, is a small rounded projection, usually for the attachment of a ligament or tendon. Choice B, Tuberosity, is a large rounded projection, also typically for muscle attachment. Choice C, Condyle, refers to a rounded articular surface at the end of a bone, usually involved in joints.

5. Which technique is correct when assessing the radial pulse of a patient?

• A. Palpate for 1 minute if the rhythm is irregular.
• B. Palpate for 15 seconds and multiply by 4 if the rhythm is regular.
• C. Palpate for 2 full minutes to detect any variation in amplitude.
• D. Palpate for 10 seconds and multiply by 6 if the rhythm is regular and the patient has no history of cardiac abnormalities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing the radial pulse, if the rhythm is irregular, the pulse should be counted for a full minute to get an accurate representation of the pulse rate. In cases where the rhythm is regular, the recommended technique is to palpate for 15 seconds and then multiply by 4 to calculate the beats per minute. This method is more accurate and efficient for normal or rapid heart rates. Palpating for 30 seconds and multiplying by 2 is not as effective, as any error in counting results in a larger discrepancy in the calculated heart rate. Palpating for 2 full minutes is excessive and not necessary for routine pulse assessment. Palpating for 10 seconds and multiplying by 6 is not a standard technique and may lead to inaccuracies, especially in patients with cardiac abnormalities.

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