Nursing Elites

1. What type of blood pressure measurement error is most likely to occur if the nurse does not check for the presence of an auscultatory gap?

• A. Diastolic blood pressure may not be heard.
• B. Diastolic blood pressure may be falsely low.
• C. Systolic blood pressure may be falsely low.
• D. Systolic blood pressure may be falsely high.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: If an auscultatory gap is undetected, a falsely low systolic reading may occur. This gap can lead to an underestimation of the systolic blood pressure, causing potential misinterpretation of the patient's condition. The diastolic blood pressure may not be heard due to the gap, but the critical issue in this scenario is the risk of underestimating systolic blood pressure, which can impact clinical decision-making. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the key concern in this context is the potential for a falsely low systolic blood pressure reading when an auscultatory gap is not assessed.

2. A 51-year-old woman had an incisional cholecystectomy 6 hours ago. The nurse will place the highest priority on assisting the patient to

• A. choose low-fat foods from the menu
• B. perform leg exercises hourly while awake
• C. ambulate the evening of the operative day
• D. turn, cough, and deep breathe every 2 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Postoperative nursing care after a cholecystectomy focuses on preventing respiratory complications due to the surgical incision being high in the abdomen, which impairs coughing and deep breathing. Turning, coughing, and deep breathing every 2 hours help prevent respiratory complications, such as pneumonia. While choices A, B, and C are also important aspects of postoperative care, they are not as high a priority as ensuring proper ventilation and respiratory function in the immediate postoperative period.

3. When performing CPR, at what rate should chest compressions be applied?

• A. 100 per minute
• B. 60 per minute
• C. As quickly as possible
• D. 200 per minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During CPR, chest compressions should be applied at a rate of 100 compressions per minute in order to effectively circulate blood and oxygen to vital organs. Option A, '100 per minute,' is the correct answer as it aligns with the recommended compression rate in CPR guidelines. Option B, '60 per minute,' is incorrect as it is too slow and may not provide adequate circulation. Option C, 'As quickly as possible,' is vague and does not specify the recommended compression rate. Option D, '200 per minute,' is incorrect as it exceeds the recommended rate and may not be as effective in maintaining perfusion.

4. Which of the following diseases would require the nurse to wear an N95 respirator as part of personal protective equipment?

• A. Human immunodeficiency virus
• B. Clostridium difficile enterocolitis
• C. Vancomycin-resistant enterococcus
• D. Measles

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Infections that require airborne precautions necessitate the use of an N95 respirator, a type of mask that filters particles that are 5 micrograms or smaller. Illnesses that require airborne precautions include Measles, Varicella, Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS), and tuberculosis. Measles is a highly contagious airborne disease caused by a virus. It can spread through respiratory droplets when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Wearing an N95 respirator helps prevent the nurse from inhaling these infectious particles. Human immunodeficiency virus, Clostridium difficile enterocolitis, and Vancomycin-resistant enterococcus do not require the use of an N95 respirator as they are not transmitted through the air but have other modes of transmission.

5. When performing a physical examination, safety must be considered to protect the examiner and the patient against the spread of infection. Which of these statements describes the most appropriate action the nurse would take when performing a physical examination?

• A. Washing one's hands after removing gloves is necessary, even if the gloves are still intact
• B. Hands are washed before and after every physical patient encounter
• C. Hands are washed before the examination of each body system to prevent the spread of bacteria from one part of the body to another
• D. Gloves are worn throughout the entire examination to demonstrate concern regarding the spread of infectious diseases

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate action for the nurse to take when performing a physical examination is to wash their hands before and after every physical patient encounter. This practice helps prevent the spread of infection. Hands should also be washed after contact with blood, body fluids, secretions, and excretions, and after contact with any equipment contaminated with body fluids. It is crucial to wash hands after removing gloves, even if the gloves appear intact. Choice A is incorrect because washing hands after removing gloves is necessary to ensure thorough hygiene. Choice C is incorrect because hands should be washed before and after every patient encounter, not just before examining each body system. Choice D is incorrect because gloves should be worn when there is potential contact with body fluids, but they do not need to be worn throughout the entire examination.

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