NCLEX-RN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX RN Questions
1. A client with a broken femur is in a traction splint in bed. Which of the following interventions is NOT part of caring for this client?
- A. Palpating the temperature of both feet
- B. Evaluating pulses bilaterally
- C. Turning the client to a side-lying position
- D. Relieving heel pressure by placing a pillow under the foot
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When caring for a client with a broken femur in a traction splint, turning the client to a side-lying position is not recommended. This client is at risk of skin breakdown and complications due to the injury, making it important to prevent unnecessary movement that may increase the risk of injury or discomfort. Palpating the temperature of both feet helps in assessing circulation, evaluating pulses bilaterally ensures perfusion to the extremities, and relieving heel pressure by placing a pillow under the foot helps in reducing pressure points and preventing complications like pressure ulcers. Therefore, the correct answer is turning the client to a side-lying position as it is not a recommended intervention in this scenario.
2. Which of the following types of antipsychotic medications is most likely to produce extrapyramidal effects?
- A. Atypical antipsychotic drugs
- B. First-generation antipsychotic drugs
- C. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs
- D. Dopamine system stabilizers
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is first-generation antipsychotic drugs. These drugs are potent antagonists of D2, D3, and D4 receptors, making them effective in treating target symptoms but also leading to numerous extrapyramidal side effects due to the blockade of D2 receptors. Atypical or second-generation antipsychotic drugs, as mentioned in choice A, are relatively weak D2 blockers, which results in a lower incidence of extrapyramidal side effects. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs, as in choice C, and dopamine system stabilizers, as in choice D, are not typically associated with significant extrapyramidal effects compared to first-generation antipsychotics.
3. You are turning your patient in bed and notice that a confused and lethargic patient had loose car keys and lipstick in the bed and had been lying on them. What is this person at risk for due to all three of these factors: confusion, lethargy, and items in the bed?
- A. Falls
- B. Skin breakdown
- C. Apnea
- D. Lack of mobility
Correct answer: B
Rationale: This patient is at great risk for skin breakdown due to the presence of three specific risk factors: confusion, lethargy, and items in the bed. While confusion puts the patient at risk for falls, confusion and lethargy together may lead to a lack of mobility. However, skin breakdown is the primary concern in this scenario as it is associated with all three risk factors - confusion, lethargy, and the presence of items in the bed. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Skin breakdown'.
4. The OR nursing staff are preparing a client for a surgical procedure. The anesthesiologist has given the client medications, and the client has entered the induction stage of anesthesia. The nursing staff can expect which of the following symptoms and activities from the client during this time?
- A. Irregular breathing patterns
- B. Minimal heartbeat, dilated pupils
- C. Relaxed muscles, regular breathing, constricted pupils
- D. Euphoria, drowsiness, dizziness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During the induction stage of anesthesia, the client may exhibit symptoms like euphoria, drowsiness, or dizziness. This stage occurs after the administration of medications by the anesthesiologist and ends when the client loses consciousness. Choice A is incorrect as irregular breathing patterns are not typically associated with the induction stage. Choice B is incorrect as minimal heartbeat and dilated pupils are not commonly observed during this stage. Choice C is incorrect as relaxed muscles, regular breathing, and constricted pupils are not indicative of the induction stage of anesthesia.
5. A 39-year-old woman presents for treatment of excessive vaginal bleeding after giving birth to twins one week ago. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate in this situation?
- A. Knowledge Deficit related to post-partum blood loss
- B. Self-Care Deficit related to post-partum neglect
- C. Fluid Volume Deficit related to post-partum hemorrhage
- D. Body Image Disturbance related to body changes after delivery
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis in this situation is 'Fluid Volume Deficit related to post-partum hemorrhage.' Post-partum hemorrhage can lead to excessive bleeding, putting the client at risk of fluid volume deficit due to the loss of blood volume. This diagnosis is most appropriate as it addresses the immediate concern of fluid loss. 'Knowledge Deficit related to post-partum blood loss' (Choice A) is incorrect as the priority in this case is addressing the physical issue of fluid volume deficit rather than knowledge deficit. 'Self-Care Deficit related to post-partum neglect' (Choice B) is not relevant to the situation described. 'Body Image Disturbance related to body changes after delivery' (Choice D) is not the most appropriate nursing diagnosis in this context where the primary concern is fluid volume deficit due to post-partum hemorrhage.
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