Nursing Elites

1. What preparation is necessary for a colposcopy procedure?

• A. NPO for 8-12 hours before the procedure.
• B. D/C all hypertension medications for two days prior to the procedure.
• C. Take three Dulcolax tablets and two containers of Miralax the day before to clear out the lower GI system.
• D. None of the above prep is necessary for this type of procedure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A colposcopy procedure is performed to examine the vagina and cervix. The only preparation required is washing the external genitals with soap and water on the morning of the procedure. Choices A, B, and C suggest unnecessary preparations that are not relevant to a colposcopy. NPO for 8-12 hours, discontinuing hypertension medications, and using laxatives are not part of the standard preparation for a colposcopy.

2. You are caring for a group of elderly clients, many of whom are affected by multiple chronic disorders and are also, at times, affected by some acute disorders that require medical and nursing attention. As you are caring for these clients, some will need a new medication regimen for an acute disorder. You should consider the fact that the elderly population is at risk for more side effects, adverse drug reactions, and toxicity due to the elderly having a(n):

• A. Increased creatinine clearance.
• B. Impaired immune system.
• C. Decreased hepatic metabolism.
• D. Increased bodily fat

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Decreased hepatic metabolism.' The elderly population is at risk for more side effects, adverse drug reactions, and toxicity due to a decrease in hepatic metabolism. This is caused by changes in hepatic functioning in the elderly, including decreased hepatic blood flow and functioning. Choice A, 'Increased creatinine clearance,' is incorrect as aging typically results in decreased, not increased, creatinine clearance. Choice B, 'Impaired immune system,' is not directly related to the increased risk of adverse drug reactions in the elderly. Choice D, 'Increased bodily fat,' is not a primary factor contributing to the increased risk of medication-related issues in the elderly population.

3. The client is receiving discharge teaching seven (7) days post myocardial infarction and inquires why he must wait six (6) weeks before engaging in sexual intercourse. What is the best response by the nurse to this question?

• A. "You need to regain your strength before attempting such exertion."?
• B. "When you can climb 2 flights of stairs without problems, it is generally safe."?
• C. "Have a glass of wine to relax you, then you can try to have sex."?
• D. "If you can maintain an active walking program, you will have less risk."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Following a myocardial infarction, there is a risk of cardiac rupture at the site of the infarction for approximately six (6) weeks until scar tissue forms. The advice to wait until the client can climb two flights of stairs without issues is common among healthcare providers as it indicates an adequate level of physical exertion tolerance and suggests a lower risk of complications during sexual activity. Choice A is not specific to the recovery timeline related to sexual activity post-myocardial infarction. Choice C is inappropriate as alcohol consumption should not be recommended before sexual activity. Choice D, though promoting an active lifestyle, does not directly address the safety concerns related to sexual intercourse post-myocardial infarction.

4. During a health history assessment of a new patient, which data should be the focus for patient teaching?

• A. Age and gender
• B. Saturated fat intake
• C. Hispanic/Latino ethnicity
• D. Family history of diabetes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is saturated fat intake. Behaviors play a crucial role in health outcomes, and saturated fat intake is a modifiable behavior that can significantly impact a patient's health. By focusing on educating the patient about reducing saturated fat intake, the healthcare provider can empower the patient to make positive changes. While age, gender, ethnicity, and family history are important factors in understanding a patient's health status, they are not behaviors that can be directly modified through patient teaching. Therefore, these factors are essential for developing an individualized care plan but are not the primary focus of patient teaching. Saturated fat intake directly relates to dietary habits, which can be altered through education and support to promote better health outcomes.

5. A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but the diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability.

• A. A lumbar puncture takes a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from the back, which will be analyzed by the lab.
• B. The physician will insert a needle at the level of L4-L5 in the spinal cord.
• C. The client should lie flat on their back for a specific period following the procedure.
• D. The risks of the procedure include headache, back pain, and infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A lumbar puncture is performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid for analysis to investigate various conditions affecting the client. During the procedure, the client is typically positioned on their side or sitting leaning over a table with their back rounded. The physician inserts a needle into the back around the L4-L5 vertebrae to collect the sample. Option A is incorrect because a lumbar puncture does not draw blood but instead collects cerebrospinal fluid. Option C is incorrect as the client should not necessarily lie flat for 24 hours post-procedure. Option D is incorrect as the common risks of a lumbar puncture include headache, back pain, and potential infection, not nausea, rash, or hypotension.

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