Nursing Elites

1. What preparation is necessary for a colposcopy procedure?

• A. NPO for 8-12 hours before the procedure.
• B. D/C all hypertension medications for two days prior to the procedure.
• C. Take three Dulcolax tablets and two containers of Miralax the day before to clear out the lower GI system.
• D. None of the above prep is necessary for this type of procedure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A colposcopy procedure is performed to examine the vagina and cervix. The only preparation required is washing the external genitals with soap and water on the morning of the procedure. Choices A, B, and C suggest unnecessary preparations that are not relevant to a colposcopy. NPO for 8-12 hours, discontinuing hypertension medications, and using laxatives are not part of the standard preparation for a colposcopy.

2. The nurse is discussing the need for early diagnosis and treatment of autism spectrum disorder (ASD) with parents of children suspected of having the condition. Which statement should the nurse include?

• A. Early diagnosis and treatment provide the only means for a cure of ASD.
• B. Early diagnosis and treatment gives your child the best chance of becoming a fully functioning adult.
• C. Early diagnosis and treatment provides the best way to ensure that your child can be admitted to an assisted living facility as an adult.
• D. Early diagnosis and treatment prevent your child from developing any other mental condition.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to include is that early diagnosis and treatment provide the best chance for the child to become a fully functioning adult. It is important to educate parents that while early intervention can improve outcomes for individuals with ASD, it does not offer a cure but helps in managing symptoms and developing necessary skills. Choice A is incorrect as there is currently no cure for ASD. Choice C is inaccurate as early diagnosis and treatment focus on improving the child's quality of life and independence rather than ensuring admission to an assisted living facility. Choice D is incorrect as early diagnosis and treatment of ASD do not prevent the development of other mental health conditions; however, they can help in identifying and managing such conditions early on.

3. Which of the following is an example of the intervention phase of the individualized nursing care plan for a client who receives a colostomy after a bowel resection?

• A. Taking a health history and performing a physical exam prior to the procedure
• B. Instructing the client about how to care for his colostomy stoma
• C. Developing goals that state the client will ambulate three times a day
• D. Determining that the client may need more support at home after dismissal

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The intervention stage of the individualized nursing care plan is where the nurse provides care, treatments, or education to help the client meet the devised outcomes. Instructing the client about how to care for his colostomy stoma is the correct example of an intervention as it directly involves providing education and guidance to the client on post-operative care. This intervention supports the process of helping the client meet the outcomes designed for this case, which is to enable the client to properly care for his colostomy after a bowel resection. The other options do not directly involve interventions aimed at assisting the client in meeting the specific care needs related to the colostomy procedure.

4. A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but the diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability.

• A. A lumbar puncture takes a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from the back, which will be analyzed by the lab.
• B. The physician will insert a needle at the level of L4-L5 in the spinal cord.
• C. The client should lie flat on their back for a specific period following the procedure.
• D. The risks of the procedure include headache, back pain, and infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A lumbar puncture is performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid for analysis to investigate various conditions affecting the client. During the procedure, the client is typically positioned on their side or sitting leaning over a table with their back rounded. The physician inserts a needle into the back around the L4-L5 vertebrae to collect the sample. Option A is incorrect because a lumbar puncture does not draw blood but instead collects cerebrospinal fluid. Option C is incorrect as the client should not necessarily lie flat for 24 hours post-procedure. Option D is incorrect as the common risks of a lumbar puncture include headache, back pain, and potential infection, not nausea, rash, or hypotension.

5. When should discharge training and planning begin for a 65-year-old man admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery?

• A. Following surgery
• B. Upon admission
• C. Within 48 hours of discharge
• D. Preoperative discussion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Discharge training and planning should begin upon admission for a patient undergoing spinal stenosis surgery. It is crucial to initiate this process early to ensure a smooth transition from hospital care to home or a rehabilitation facility. Starting discharge planning upon admission allows for comprehensive involvement of the patient, family, and healthcare team, which can reduce the risk of readmission, optimize recovery, ensure proper medication management, and adequately prepare caregivers. Therefore, option B, 'Upon admission,' is the correct answer. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until after surgery, within 48 hours of discharge, or during preoperative discussion would not provide sufficient time for effective discharge planning and education.

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