NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions
1. What factor is likely the reason a woman with bipolar disorder, manic episode, rarely eats?
- A. Feelings of guilt
- B. Need to control others
- C. Desire for punishment
- D. Excessive physical activity
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a manic episode of bipolar disorder, individuals often experience hyperactivity and an inability to stay still. This hyperactivity can manifest as excessive physical activity, which can prevent them from eating regularly. The correct answer is 'Excessive physical activity' because it directly relates to the woman's lack of appetite during the manic episode. Feelings of guilt, the need to control others, and the desire for punishment are not typically associated with eating difficulties in individuals with bipolar disorder during a manic episode. Clients in a manic episode usually have heightened energy levels and may engage in activities that exhaust them, leading to a decreased focus on eating.
2. Which response would the nurse make when a client moans softly, 'Oh no, I'm next. They couldn't protect him, and they can't protect me,' after learning a recently discharged client committed suicide?
- A. ''The other person was a lot sicker than you are.''
- B. 'You seem to be afraid that you'll hurt yourself.''
- C. 'That was different. He was at home, but you're here.''
- D. 'There's no need to worry. You have a better support system.''
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse would make the statement, 'You seem to be afraid that you'll hurt yourself.' This response acknowledges the client's emotional distress and opens up the opportunity for the client to discuss their feelings, showing empathy and understanding. Choice A, 'The other person was a lot sicker than you are,' dismisses the client's emotions and fails to address the underlying fear of self-harm. Choice C, 'That was different. He was at home, but you're here,' invalidates the client's concerns and does not encourage further discussion. Choice D, 'There's no need to worry. You have a better support system,' offers false reassurance and does not address the client's expressed fear, missing an opportunity for therapeutic communication.
3. When assessing an older adult, which vital sign changes would the nurse recognize as occurring with aging?
- A. Increase in pulse rate
- B. Widened pulse pressure
- C. Increase in body temperature
- D. Decrease in diastolic blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When assessing an older adult, the nurse should be aware that with aging, systolic blood pressure tends to increase, resulting in widened pulse pressure. While in many older individuals both systolic and diastolic pressures increase, the pulse rate and body temperature typically do not increase with aging. Therefore, the correct answer is widened pulse pressure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because pulse rate does not necessarily increase with age, body temperature generally remains stable, and diastolic blood pressure may increase instead of decreasing in many older adults.
4. Which statement best describes the pathophysiology of dementia of the Alzheimer type?
- A. There is a genetic predisposition and dysregulation of neurotransmitters.
- B. The dementia is transient and secondary to a physical imbalance or disorder.
- C. Hypoxia and decreased perfusion of select areas of the brain cause tissue damage.
- D. The presence of amyloid plaques is associated with brain tissue destruction.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In Alzheimer's disease, the accumulation of amyloid plaques in the brain is a hallmark feature. These plaques are associated with the destruction of brain tissue, contributing to the cognitive decline seen in dementia. Genetic predisposition and dysregulation of neurotransmitters are factors linked to the development of Alzheimer's disease, but the primary pathology lies in the amyloid plaques. Transient dementia is not characteristic of Alzheimer's disease, which is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder. Hypoxia and decreased perfusion are more typical of vascular dementia, where blood flow to the brain is compromised.
5. What is a priority goal of involuntary hospitalization of the severely mentally ill client?
- A. Re-orientation to reality
- B. Elimination of symptoms
- C. Protection from harm to self or others
- D. Return to independent functioning
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority goal of involuntary hospitalization of severely mentally ill clients is to ensure protection from harm to self or others. Involuntary hospitalization is often necessary for individuals who are deemed dangerous to themselves or others or who are considered gravely disabled. Re-orientation to reality, elimination of symptoms, and return to independent functioning are important aspects of mental health care but are not the primary goals of involuntary hospitalization. The main focus during involuntary hospitalization is to address safety concerns and prevent harm.
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