Nursing Elites

1. Which theory reflects the view that illness is caused by an imbalance or disharmony in the forces of nature?

• A. Germ theory
• B. Naturalistic theory
• C. Magicoreligious theory
• D. Biomedical or scientific theory

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The naturalistic theory posits that illness results from an imbalance or disharmony in the forces of nature. According to this theory, maintaining a natural balance or harmony is essential to prevent illness. Conversely, germ theory and biomedical or scientific theory attribute illness to microorganisms, while magicoreligious theory attributes illness to supernatural forces such as deities or spirits. Therefore, the most appropriate theory reflecting the belief that illness arises from a disruption in natural forces is the naturalistic theory.

2. What would be an appropriate evaluation statement for the nurse to write based on the client's ability to state only two signs of impaired circulation out of three as expected?

• A. Client understands the signs of impaired circulation
• B. Goal met: Client cited numbness and tingling as a sign of impaired circulation
• C. Goal not met: Client able to name only two signs of impaired circulation
• D. Goal not met: Client unable to describe signs of impaired circulation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The appropriate evaluation statement for the nurse to write would be 'Goal not met: Client able to name only two signs of impaired circulation.' In this scenario, the client has only identified two out of the three signs of impaired circulation specified in the desired outcome. Therefore, the goal has not been fully achieved. It is essential in nursing practice to assess and document client progress accurately. While the client has shown some understanding by correctly identifying numbness and tingling as signs of impaired circulation, the inability to state the third sign indicates an incomplete achievement of the goal. This evaluation helps guide further interventions or educational strategies to help the client meet the desired outcome in the care plan.

3. Where is the duodenum located in the digestive system?

• A. It is the first part of the small intestine, located immediately after the stomach.
• B. It is the section of the digestive system where the gall bladder delivers bile.
• C. It is the section of the small intestine where the pancreas delivers digestive juices.
• D. None of the above.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The duodenum is the first part of the small intestine, located immediately after the stomach. It is where the majority of digestion takes place in the gut. The pancreas delivers digestive juices containing amylase and lipase, while the gall bladder delivers bile to aid in the digestion of fats. Choice A incorrectly states that the duodenum is the third section of the small intestine, which is inaccurate. Choice B incorrectly associates the duodenum with the gall bladder, which is not where the duodenum is located. Choice C incorrectly states that the duodenum is where the pancreas delivers digestive juices, which is partly correct but not the main function of the duodenum. Therefore, the correct answer is 'None of the above' as none of the choices accurately describe the location or functions of the duodenum.

4. The nurse is taking an initial blood pressure reading on a 72-year-old patient with documented hypertension. How should the nurse proceed?

• A. Cuff should be placed on the patient's arm and inflated 30 mm Hg above the point at which the palpated pulse disappears.
• B. Cuff should be inflated to 200 mm Hg in an attempt to obtain the most accurate systolic reading.
• C. Cuff should be inflated 30 mm Hg above the patient's pulse rate.
• D. After confirming the patient's previous blood pressure readings, the cuff should be inflated 30 mm Hg above the highest systolic reading recorded.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When measuring blood pressure, it's important to account for the possibility of an auscultatory gap, which occurs in about 5% of individuals, particularly those with hypertension due to a noncompliant arterial system. To detect an auscultatory gap, the cuff should be inflated 20 to 30 mm Hg beyond the point at which the palpated pulse disappears. This ensures an accurate measurement of blood pressure by overcoming the potential gap in sounds. Choice A is correct as it follows this guideline. Choices B and C are incorrect because inflating the cuff to 200 mm Hg or above the patient's pulse rate does not address the specific issue of an auscultatory gap. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on the patient's previous readings rather than the current measurement technique needed to detect an auscultatory gap.

5. After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?

• A. 72-year-old with cor pulmonale who has 4+ bilateral edema in his legs and feet
• B. 28-year-old with a history of a lung transplant and a temperature of 101 F (38.3 C)
• C. 40-year-old with a pleural effusion who is complaining of severe stabbing chest pain
• D. 64-year-old with lung cancer and tracheal deviation after subclavian catheter insertion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient with lung cancer and tracheal deviation after a subclavian catheter insertion should be assessed first. Tracheal deviation can indicate tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention to prevent inadequate cardiac output or hypoxemia. While the other patients also need assessment, the potential for tension pneumothorax in the patient with tracheal deviation necessitates urgent attention to prevent complications.

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