Nursing Elites

1. A patient with Parkinson's disease is experiencing difficulty swallowing. What potential problem associated with dysphagia has the greatest influence on the plan of care?

• A. Anorexia
• B. Aspiration
• C. Self-care deficit
• D. Inadequate intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a person experiences dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), the greatest concern is aspiration. Aspiration occurs when food or fluids enter the trachea and lungs instead of going down the esophagus. This can lead to serious complications such as choking, airway obstruction, and aspiration pneumonia. Anorexia (Choice A) refers to a loss of appetite, which is not the primary concern with dysphagia. Self-care deficit (Choice C) and inadequate intake (Choice D) are important considerations but do not have as direct an impact on the immediate safety and health risks associated with aspiration in dysphagia.

2. A client has just started a transfusion of packed red blood cells that a physician ordered. Which of the following signs may indicate a transfusion reaction?

• A. The client suddenly complains of back pain and has chills
• B. The client develops dependent edema in the extremities
• C. The client has a seizure
• D. The client's heart rate drops to 60 bpm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is when the client suddenly complains of back pain and has chills. Signs of a transfusion reaction include back pain, chills, dizziness, increased temperature, and blood in the urine. These signs indicate a possible adverse reaction to the blood transfusion. Dependent edema in the extremities is not typically associated with a transfusion reaction. A seizure is not a common sign of a transfusion reaction unless it is due to severe complications. A decrease in heart rate to 60 bpm is not a typical sign of a transfusion reaction, but rather bradycardia may indicate other underlying conditions or medications.

3. The nurse is unable to palpate the right radial pulse on a patient. What would the nurse do next?

• A. Auscultate over the area with a fetoscope.
• B. Use a goniometer to measure the pulsations.
• C. Use a Doppler device to check for pulsations over the area.
• D. Check for the presence of pulsations with a stethoscope.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a nurse is unable to palpate a radial pulse, the next step is to use a Doppler device to check for pulsations over the area. Doppler devices are specifically designed to augment pulse or blood pressure measurements. Auscultating with a fetoscope is used to listen to fetal heart tones and is not relevant in this scenario. Goniometers are used to measure joint range of motion and are not used to assess pulses. Stethoscopes are primarily used to auscultate breath, bowel, and heart sounds, not to check for pulsations in peripheral pulses. Therefore, the correct course of action when unable to palpate a pulse is to utilize a Doppler device to assess for pulsations in the radial pulse area.

4. When checking for proper blood pressure cuff size, which guideline is correct?

• A. The standard cuff size is appropriate for all sizes.
• B. The length of the rubber bladder should equal 80% of the arm circumference.
• C. The width of the rubber bladder should equal 80% of the arm circumference.
• D. The width of the rubber bladder should equal 40% of the arm circumference.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When selecting the correct blood pressure cuff size, it is essential to ensure that the width of the rubber bladder equals 40% of the circumference of the person's arm. This ensures proper fitting and accurate readings. The length of the bladder should actually equal 80% of the arm circumference, not 80% of the width, making choices B and C incorrect. Choice A stating that the standard cuff size is appropriate for all sizes is inaccurate, as using an incorrectly sized cuff can lead to inaccurate blood pressure readings.

5. What is the primary purpose of a patient care meeting or conference?

• A. the patient's ability to pay for the costs of their care
• B. how the healthcare team can best meet the patient's needs
• C. the patient's physical status and condition
• D. the patient's psychosocial status and condition

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary purpose of a patient care meeting or conference is to determine how the healthcare team can best meet the patient's needs. These meetings involve discussions among healthcare professionals to tailor the care plan to the specific needs and preferences of the patient. Option A is incorrect because financial discussions are generally not the primary focus of patient care meetings. Option C is incorrect as the patient's physical status is usually already known and is not the primary purpose of the meeting. Option D is incorrect as psychosocial aspects, while important, are not the sole focus of the meeting, which is primarily about addressing the patient's overall needs and preferences.

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