Nursing Elites

1. An experienced healthcare professional instructs a new colleague on caring for a patient with dyspnea due to a pulmonary fungal infection. Which action by the new colleague indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. Listening to the patient's lung sounds several times during the shift
• B. Placing the patient in droplet precautions and in a private hospital room
• C. Increasing the oxygen flow rate to maintain oxygen saturation above 90%
• D. Monitoring the patient's serology results to identify the specific infecting organism

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is placing the patient in droplet precautions and in a private hospital room. Fungal infections are not transmitted from person to person, so isolation procedures like droplet precautions are unnecessary. Listening to the patient's lung sounds, increasing the oxygen flow rate, and monitoring serology results are all appropriate actions in caring for a patient with dyspnea caused by a pulmonary fungal infection.

2. You are preparing to admit a patient with a seizure disorder. Which of the following actions can you delegate to an LPN/LVN?

• A. Complete admission assessment.
• B. Set up oxygen and suction equipment.
• C. Place a padded tongue blade at the bedside.
• D. Pad the side rails before the patient arrives.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to delegate the task of setting up oxygen and suction equipment to the LPN/LVN. This task falls within their scope of practice and can be safely performed by them. Completing the admission assessment (Choice A) typically requires a higher level of assessment and critical thinking, making it more appropriate for a registered nurse. Placing a padded tongue blade at the bedside (Choice C) involves potential airway management, which is a more complex task and should be done by a higher-level provider. Padding the side rails before the patient arrives (Choice D) is a task related to patient safety and should be done by the healthcare team as a whole, not solely delegated to an LPN/LVN.

3. A patient's urine specimen tested positive for bilirubin. Which of the following is most true?

• A. The patient should be evaluated for kidney disease
• B. The specimen was probably left at room temperature for more than two hours
• C. The specimen is positive for bacteria
• D. The specimen should be stored in an area protected from light

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bilirubin is easily broken down by light, so all samples testing positive for bilirubin should be protected from light exposure. Storing the specimen in an area protected from light helps maintain the integrity of the bilirubin levels for accurate testing. Choice A is incorrect because the presence of bilirubin in urine does not necessarily indicate kidney disease. Choice B is incorrect as the exposure to light, not room temperature, affects bilirubin levels. Choice C is incorrect as the presence of bilirubin does not indicate the presence of bacteria in the specimen.

4. When is a physician likely to assess turgor?

• A. When iron deficiency is suspected.
• B. When heart and lung issues are suspected.
• C. When dehydration is suspected.
• D. None of the above.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Skin turgor is assessed when dehydration is suspected. To evaluate skin turgor, a physician pinches the skin and observes how quickly it returns to its normal position. If the skin stays folded for an extended period, it indicates dehydration. Assessing turgor helps determine a patient's hydration status. Choice A is incorrect because skin turgor is not used to assess iron deficiency. Choice B is incorrect as turgor is not related to heart and lung issues, but rather hydration status. Choice D is incorrect as turgor assessment is relevant when dehydration is suspected.

5. An examiner is using an ophthalmoscope to examine a patient's eyes. The patient has astigmatism and is nearsighted. Which of these techniques by the examiner would indicate that the examination is being correctly performed?

• A. Rotating the lens selector dial to bring the object into focus
• B. Using the large full circle of light when assessing pupils that are not dilated
• C. Rotating the lens selector dial to the black numbers to compensate for astigmatism
• D. Using the grid on the lens aperture dial to visualize the external structures of the eye

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To correctly perform an eye examination using an ophthalmoscope on a patient with astigmatism and nearsightedness, the examiner should rotate the lens selector dial to bring the object into focus. This adjustment helps compensate for nearsightedness or farsightedness but does not correct astigmatism. Rotating the lens selector dial to the black numbers is not an appropriate technique for compensating for astigmatism. Using the grid on the lens aperture dial is primarily for visualizing external structures of the eye, not for addressing refractive errors. The large full circle of light is typically used when assessing dilated pupils, not for examining patients with astigmatism and nearsightedness. Therefore, the correct technique is rotating the lens selector dial to bring the object into focus.

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