the sims position is most similar to the position
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NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Actual Exam Test Bank

1. The Sims' position is MOST similar to the ________ position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'lateral.' The Sims' position is characterized by the patient lying on their side with the upper knee flexed and the upper arm positioned in front of the body. This is similar to the lateral position where the patient is also lying on their side. The prone position (choice A) is when the patient lies face down, the supine position (choice C) is when the patient lies face up, and Fowler's position (choice D) is a seated position with the head of the bed elevated at a 45-90 degree angle. Therefore, the lateral position is the most similar to the Sims' position as both involve the patient lying on their side.

2. Which of the following is classified as a prerenal condition that affects urinary elimination?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A prerenal condition is one that causes reduced urinary elimination by affecting the blood flow to the kidneys. Pericardial tamponade is a condition that impacts the heart's ability to pump sufficient blood, leading to decreased blood flow to vital organs such as the kidneys. This reduction in blood flow to the kidneys can result in decreased urine production. The other choices, such as nephrotoxic medications, neurogenic bladder, and polycystic kidney disease, do not primarily affect the blood flow to the kidneys and are not classified as prerenal conditions that impact urinary elimination.

3. When preparing a patient on complete bed rest to eat, at what degree angle or more should you put the head of the bed up?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 30. When a patient is on complete bed rest, it is essential to elevate the head of the bed at a 30-degree angle or more before meals. This position helps prevent choking and aspiration of food during eating by promoting proper swallowing and digestion. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not provide the optimal elevation needed to support safe and effective feeding for a patient on complete bed rest.

4. While performing CPR, a healthcare provider encounters a client with a large amount of thick chest hair when preparing to use an automated external defibrillator (AED). What is the next appropriate action for the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When using an AED, it is crucial for the pads to have good contact with the skin to effectively deliver an electrical shock. While AED pads can adhere to a client's chest even with some hair, thick chest hair can hinder proper current conduction. In such cases, it is recommended to shave the area of the chest where the pads will be applied. Most AED kits include a razor for this purpose. The healthcare provider should act promptly to minimize delays in defibrillation. Option A is incorrect because it may lead to ineffective treatment due to poor pad adherence. Option B is not the best course of action as wiping the chest may not resolve the issue of poor pad contact. Option D is incorrect as not using the AED could jeopardize the client's chance of survival in a cardiac emergency.

5. During an initial assessment interview, which statement made by a patient should serve as the priority focus for the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The statement about hearing evil voices indicates that the patient is experiencing auditory hallucinations, which is a significant symptom that requires immediate attention and intervention. This symptom can be associated with serious mental health conditions like psychosis. Choices A, B, and C are more general statements that do not provide specific information about the patient's mental health status or symptoms, making them less urgent and not as critical for the plan of care compared to the presence of auditory hallucinations.

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