Nursing Elites

1. Why should direct care providers avoid glued-on artificial nails?

• A. Interfere with dexterity of the fingers.
• B. Could fall off in a patient's bed.
• C. Harbor microorganisms.
• D. Can scratch a patient.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Direct care providers, including nurses, should avoid glued-on artificial nails because studies have shown that artificial nails, especially when cracked, broken, or split, create crevices where microorganisms can thrive and multiply. This can lead to an increased risk of transmitting infections to patients. Therefore, the primary reason for avoiding glued-on artificial nails is their potential to harbor harmful microorganisms, making option C the correct choice. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because while they may present some issues, the primary concern is the risk of microbial contamination associated with artificial nails.

2. Intermittent fevers are:

• A. fevers which come and go.
• B. fevers which rise and fall but are always considered above the patient's average temperature.
• C. fevers which fluctuate more than three degrees and never return to normal.
• D. None of the above.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Intermittent fevers are characterized by periods of fever followed by periods of normal body temperature. They alternate between being febrile and afebrile. Continuous fevers show minimal fluctuations over a 24-hour period, while remittent fevers fluctuate significantly but do return to normal body temperature. Choice A is correct as it accurately describes intermittent fevers. Choices B and C are incorrect as they do not fully capture the defining characteristic of intermittent fevers, which involve cyclical episodes of fever and normal temperature. Choice D is incorrect as there is a specific definition for intermittent fevers.

3. Madge is a 91-year-old nursing home resident with a history of dementia and atrial fibrillation who has been admitted to the hospital for treatment of pneumonia. As you are performing her bed bath, you note bruising around her breasts and genital area. What potential issue should be of major concern in Madge's situation?

• A. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
• B. Embolic stroke
• C. Sexual abuse
• D. Nursing home-acquired pneumonia (NHAP)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bruising around the breasts and genitals should trigger concern for sexual abuse. Elder abuse is a growing problem in America, and nurses are uniquely positioned to recognize and intervene on behalf of vulnerable populations, such as the elderly. According to the National Center on Elder Abuse (NCEA), major types of elder abuse include physical abuse, sexual abuse, emotional or psychological abuse, neglect, abandonment, financial or material exploitation, and self-neglect. In this scenario, given Madge's age, history of dementia, and the presence of unexplained bruising in sensitive areas, sexual abuse must be considered as a major concern. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a platelet disorder that presents with excessive bruising and bleeding, but it is less likely in this case as the bruising pattern is suggestive of a different cause. Embolic stroke is a neurological condition that typically presents with sudden onset neurological deficits and is not related to the observed bruising. Nursing home-acquired pneumonia (NHAP) is a common issue in elderly residents but would not manifest as bruising in specific areas like the breasts and genitals.

4. A client who complains of nausea and seems anxious is admitted to the nursing unit. The nurse should take which of the following actions regarding completion of the admission interview?

• A. Help the client to get settled and conduct the interview the next morning when the client is rested
• B. Conduct the interview immediately, directing the majority of the questions to the client
• C. Conduct the interview as soon as uninterrupted time is available to address the client's concerns
• D. Ask the charge nurse to interview the client while the admitting nurse calls the doctor for anti-nausea and anti-anxiety medication

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When dealing with a client who is experiencing nausea and anxiety, it is important to promptly conduct the admission interview to address their concerns. This allows for the collection of accurate data while attending to the client's immediate needs. Delaying the interview until the next morning (Choice A) may not be in the best interest of the client as timely assessment and intervention are essential. Directing questions to the client's spouse (Choice B) may not provide accurate information from the client themselves. Asking another nurse to conduct the interview while administering medications (Choice D) does not prioritize building a therapeutic relationship with the client, which is crucial in addressing their concerns and providing holistic care.

5. While explaining an illness to a 10-year-old, what should the nurse keep in mind about the cognitive development at this age?

• A. They are able to make simple associations of ideas
• B. They are able to think logically in organizing facts
• C. Interpretation of events originates from their own perspective
• D. Conclusions are based on previous experiences

Correct answer: B

Rationale: At the age of 10, children are in the concrete operations stage according to Piaget. They are capable of mature thought when allowed to manipulate and organize objects. This means they can think logically, organize facts, and understand cause-and-effect relationships. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While simple associations of ideas may occur, the key cognitive ability at this stage is the capacity for logical thought and organization of information. Interpretation of events from their own perspective is more characteristic of younger children, and conclusions based on previous experiences are more aligned with older children or adults.

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