Nursing Elites

1. When performing a physical examination, safety must be considered to protect the examiner and the patient against the spread of infection. Which of these statements describes the most appropriate action the nurse would take when performing a physical examination?

• A. Washing one's hands after removing gloves is necessary, even if the gloves are still intact
• B. Hands are washed before and after every physical patient encounter
• C. Hands are washed before the examination of each body system to prevent the spread of bacteria from one part of the body to another
• D. Gloves are worn throughout the entire examination to demonstrate concern regarding the spread of infectious diseases

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate action for the nurse to take when performing a physical examination is to wash their hands before and after every physical patient encounter. This practice helps prevent the spread of infection. Hands should also be washed after contact with blood, body fluids, secretions, and excretions, and after contact with any equipment contaminated with body fluids. It is crucial to wash hands after removing gloves, even if the gloves appear intact. Choice A is incorrect because washing hands after removing gloves is necessary to ensure thorough hygiene. Choice C is incorrect because hands should be washed before and after every patient encounter, not just before examining each body system. Choice D is incorrect because gloves should be worn when there is potential contact with body fluids, but they do not need to be worn throughout the entire examination.

2. When is a physician likely to assess turgor?

• A. When iron deficiency is suspected.
• B. When heart and lung issues are suspected.
• C. When dehydration is suspected.
• D. None of the above.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Skin turgor is assessed when dehydration is suspected. To evaluate skin turgor, a physician pinches the skin and observes how quickly it returns to its normal position. If the skin stays folded for an extended period, it indicates dehydration. Assessing turgor helps determine a patient's hydration status. Choice A is incorrect because skin turgor is not used to assess iron deficiency. Choice B is incorrect as turgor is not related to heart and lung issues, but rather hydration status. Choice D is incorrect as turgor assessment is relevant when dehydration is suspected.

3. During the implementation phase of the nursing process when working with a hospitalized adult, which of the following actions would the nurse take?

• A. Formulate a nursing diagnosis of impaired gas exchange
• B. Record in the medical record the distance a client ambulates in the hall
• C. Write individualized nursing orders in the care plan
• D. Compare client responses to the desired outcomes for pain relief

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the implementation phase of the nursing process, the nurse is responsible for carrying out or delegating nursing interventions and documenting nursing activities and client responses in the medical records. Option A involves diagnosing, which is part of the nursing process's earlier phases. Option C pertains to planning, which precedes implementation. Option D relates to evaluation, which comes after the implementation phase.

4. When performing CPR, at what rate should chest compressions be applied?

• A. 100 per minute
• B. 60 per minute
• C. As quickly as possible
• D. 200 per minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During CPR, chest compressions should be applied at a rate of 100 compressions per minute in order to effectively circulate blood and oxygen to vital organs. Option A, '100 per minute,' is the correct answer as it aligns with the recommended compression rate in CPR guidelines. Option B, '60 per minute,' is incorrect as it is too slow and may not provide adequate circulation. Option C, 'As quickly as possible,' is vague and does not specify the recommended compression rate. Option D, '200 per minute,' is incorrect as it exceeds the recommended rate and may not be as effective in maintaining perfusion.

5. The Atlas and the Axis are:

• A. found in the vertebrae.
• B. described as being cervical.
• C. the first two bones that form the column for the spine on the superior aspect.
• D. All of the above.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The Atlas and the Axis are the first two cervical vertebrae, designated as C1 and C2. The Atlas (C1) supports the skull, while the Axis (C2) allows for rotation of the skull. Therefore, all the statements in choices A, B, and C are correct, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choice A is correct as the Atlas and Axis are indeed found in the vertebrae. Choice B is correct as they are the first two cervical vertebrae. Choice C is correct as these bones form the superior aspect of the spine.

Similar Questions