Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a patient's pulse, which of the following characteristics would the nurse also notice?

• A. Force
• B. Pallor
• C. Capillary refill time
• D. Timing in the cardiac cycle

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a patient's pulse, the nurse should observe characteristics such as rate, rhythm, and force. Force refers to the strength or amplitude of the pulse, which provides important information about cardiac output. Pallor is the paleness of the skin and is not directly related to pulse assessment. Capillary refill time is used to assess peripheral perfusion and is not specifically part of pulse assessment. Timing in the cardiac cycle is a broader concept and not a characteristic directly assessed during a pulse examination. Therefore, choice A, 'Force,' is the correct answer as it aligns with the standard parameters evaluated during pulse assessment.

2. A registered nurse who usually works in a spinal rehabilitation unit is floated to the emergency department. Which of these clients should the charge nurse assign to this RN?

• A. A middle-aged client who says, "I took too many diet pills"? and "my heart feels like it is racing out of my chest."?
• B. A young adult who says, "I hear songs from heaven. I need money for beer. I quit drinking two (2) days ago for my family. Why are my arms and legs jerking?"?
• C. An adolescent who has been on pain medications for terminal cancer with an initial assessment finding of pinpoint pupils and a relaxed respiratory rate of 11.
• D. An elderly client who reports having taken a "large crack hit"? 10 minutes prior to walking into the emergency room.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assigning a floated nurse from another unit to a client in the emergency department, the goal is to choose a patient with minimal anticipated immediate complications. In this scenario, the adolescent with terminal cancer who has been on pain medications and presents with pinpoint pupils and a relaxed respiratory rate of 11 is the most stable option. These assessment findings indicate opioid toxicity, which, while serious, has the least risk of immediate complications compared to the other clients. Choice A involves a middle-aged client experiencing symptoms of possible cardiac issues due to diet pill overdose, which requires urgent intervention. Choice B presents a young adult with concerning symptoms of potential psychosis or substance withdrawal, requiring immediate attention. Choice D involves an elderly client who recently used crack, posing a high-risk situation that requires prompt evaluation and intervention. Therefore, the correct choice is the adolescent with opioid toxicity, as this client has the least immediate risk of complications among the options provided.

3. When is a physician likely to assess turgor?

• A. When iron deficiency is suspected.
• B. When heart and lung issues are suspected.
• C. When dehydration is suspected.
• D. None of the above.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Skin turgor is assessed when dehydration is suspected. To evaluate skin turgor, a physician pinches the skin and observes how quickly it returns to its normal position. If the skin stays folded for an extended period, it indicates dehydration. Assessing turgor helps determine a patient's hydration status. Choice A is incorrect because skin turgor is not used to assess iron deficiency. Choice B is incorrect as turgor is not related to heart and lung issues, but rather hydration status. Choice D is incorrect as turgor assessment is relevant when dehydration is suspected.

4. A healthcare professional realizes after a patient has left the office that they forgot to document the patient's complaint of a sore throat. Which of the following choices would BEST correct the error?

• A. Pull out that page of the chart and rewrite it with the correct information.
• B. Put one line through the original Chief Complaint, write 'ERROR,' your initials, and today's date. Make the correction by rewriting the Chief Complaint with the correct information.
• C. Go to the next available line of the SOAP notes. Write the current date, then write 'Late Entry.' Place the date and time when the patient stated they had a sore throat. Sign and date the entry.
• D. All of the above are incorrect.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When adding information to a patient's chart after the encounter, using the term 'Late Entry' is essential. This clearly indicates that the information was added after the fact and helps to maintain the accuracy and integrity of the medical record. Option A is incorrect because removing a page from the chart and rewriting it can lead to inaccuracies and is not a recommended practice for correcting errors. Option B suggests marking the original Chief Complaint as an error, which may not be clear to future readers of the chart and could lead to confusion. Option D is incorrect as it dismisses the correct approach outlined in Option C, which is the best way to handle the situation of missed documentation during a patient encounter.

5. Which of the following is the correct sequence for removing personal protective equipment?

• A. Remove gown, gloves, shoe covers, mask
• B. Remove mask, gloves, gown, shoe covers
• C. Remove gloves, gown, mask, shoe covers
• D. Remove shoe covers, mask, gloves, gown

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct sequence for removing personal protective equipment is crucial to prevent contamination. When exiting a surgical or aseptic situation, the proper sequence is to first remove gloves, followed by the gown, mask, and finally shoe covers. This order ensures that potentially contaminated items are removed first, minimizing the risk of exposure. Choice A, 'Remove gown, gloves, shoe covers, mask,' is incorrect as gloves should be removed before the gown. Choice B, 'Remove mask, gloves, gown, shoe covers,' is incorrect as gloves should be removed first. Choice D, 'Remove shoe covers, mask, gloves, gown,' is incorrect as gloves should be the first item removed to prevent contamination.

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