Nursing Elites

1. During an initial assessment interview, which statement made by a patient should serve as the priority focus for the plan of care?

• A. "I can always trust my family."?
• B. "It seems like I always have bad luck."?
• C. "You never know who will turn against you."?
• D. "I hear evil voices that tell me to do bad things."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The statement about hearing evil voices indicates that the patient is experiencing auditory hallucinations, which is a significant symptom that requires immediate attention and intervention. This symptom can be associated with serious mental health conditions like psychosis. Choices A, B, and C are more general statements that do not provide specific information about the patient's mental health status or symptoms, making them less urgent and not as critical for the plan of care compared to the presence of auditory hallucinations.

2. A client in a long-term care facility has developed reddened skin over the sacrum, which has cracked and started to blister. The nurse confirms that the client has not been assisted with turning while in bed. Which stage of pressure ulcer is this client exhibiting?

• A. Stage I
• B. Stage II
• C. Stage III
• D. Stage IV

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client is exhibiting a stage II pressure ulcer. A stage II pressure ulcer develops as a partial thickness wound that affects both the epidermis and the dermal layers of skin. This stage can present with red skin, blisters, or cracking, appearing shallow and moist. However, the ulcer does not extend to the underlying tissues at this stage. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect as Stage I ulcers involve non-blanchable redness of intact skin. Choices C (Stage III) and D (Stage IV) are incorrect as they involve more severe tissue damage, extending into deeper layers of the skin and underlying tissues, which is not the case in this scenario.

3. When measuring the vital signs of a 6-month-old infant, which action by the nurse is correct?

• A. Respirations are measured first, followed by pulse and temperature.
• B. Vital signs should be measured as frequently as in an adult.
• C. Procedures are explained to the parent, and the infant is encouraged to handle the equipment.
• D. The nurse should first measure the infant's vital signs before performing a physical examination.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing vital signs in a 6-month-old infant, the correct order is to measure respirations first, followed by pulse and temperature. This sequence is important to avoid potential alterations in respiratory and pulse rates caused by factors like crying or discomfort. Measuring the temperature first, especially rectally, may lead to an increase in respiratory and pulse rates, which can skew the results. It is crucial to follow this specific order to obtain accurate baseline values. Therefore, option A is the correct choice. Option B is incorrect as the frequency of measuring vital signs in infants differs based on individual needs rather than being consistently more frequent than in adults. Option C is not directly related to the correct sequence for measuring vital signs in infants. Option D is incorrect because the physical examination typically follows the assessment of vital signs in clinical practice.

4. The nurse is reviewing the hot/cold theory of health and illness. Which statement best describes the basic tenets of this theory?

• A. The causation of illness is based on supernatural forces that influence the humors of the body.
• B. Herbs and medicines are classified based on their physical characteristics of hot and cold and the humors of the body.
• C. The four humors of the body consist of blood, yellow bile, black bile, and phlegm.
• D. The treatment of disease consists of adding or subtracting cold, heat, dryness, or wetness to restore the balance of the humors of the body.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The hot/cold theory of health and illness is based on the four humors of the body: blood, phlegm, black bile, and yellow bile. These humors regulate the basic bodily functions, described in terms of temperature, dryness, and moisture. The treatment of disease in this theory involves adding or subtracting cold, heat, dryness, or wetness to restore the balance of the humors. Choice A is incorrect as the theory is not based on supernatural forces but on the balance of bodily humors. Choice B is incorrect as herbs and medicines are not classified solely based on their physical characteristics of hot and cold in this theory. Choice C is incorrect as the four humors are blood, phlegm, black bile, and yellow bile, not spiritual connectedness or social aspects. Therefore, the correct choice is D, as it accurately reflects a foundational tenet of the hot/cold theory of health and illness.

5. The abbreviation pc is defined as ________________.

• A. before the meal
• B. with the meal
• C. after the meal
• D. post corpi

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'after the meal.' In medical terminology, 'pc' is an abbreviation for 'post cibum,' which means 'after eating' or 'after the meal.' This term is used to indicate when a medication should be taken concerning meals. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. 'Before the meal' (A) is typically abbreviated as 'ac,' 'with the meal' (B) is abbreviated as 'pc,' and 'post corpi' (D) is not a valid medical abbreviation or term.

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