Nursing Elites

1. A patient is admitted and complains of gastric pain, fever, and diarrhea. Which assessment finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Abdominal distention
• B. A bruit near the epigastric area
• C. 3 episodes of vomiting in the last hour
• D. Blood pressure of 160/90

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A bruit near the epigastric area may indicate the presence of an aortic aneurysm, which is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate medical attention. Abdominal distention, while concerning, may not be as urgent as a potential aneurysm. Vomiting episodes may suggest underlying issues but do not present an immediate life-threatening situation. A blood pressure of 160/90, though elevated, does not pose the same level of immediate threat as a potential aortic aneurysm.

2. The client is seven (7) days post total hip replacement. Which statement by the client requires the nurse's immediate attention?

• A. I have bad muscle spasms in my lower leg of the affected extremity.
• B. I just can't 'catch my breath' over the past few minutes and I think I am in grave danger.
• C. I have to use the bedpan to pass my water at least every 1 to 2 hours.
• D. It seems that the pain medication is not working as well today.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: While all statements by the client require attention, the most critical one that demands immediate action is option B. Clients who have undergone hip or knee surgery are at an increased risk of postoperative pulmonary embolism. Sudden dyspnea and tachycardia are hallmark signs of this condition. Without appropriate prophylaxis such as anticoagulant therapy, deep vein thrombosis (DVT) can develop within 7 to 14 days after surgery, potentially leading to pulmonary embolism. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize signs of DVT, which include pain, tenderness, skin discoloration, swelling, or tightness in the affected leg. Signs of pulmonary embolism include sudden onset dyspnea, tachycardia, confusion, and pleuritic chest pain. Option B indicates a potentially life-threatening situation that requires immediate intervention to prevent serious complications.

3. During a physical exam, a healthcare professional assisting a client suspected of having meningitis bends the client's leg at the hip to a 90-degree angle. When attempting to extend the leg at the knee, the client experiences severe pain. What type of test is being performed?

• A. Brudzinski's sign
• B. Romberg's sign
• C. Kernig's sign
• D. Babinski's sign

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The healthcare professional is performing Kernig's sign, a test for meningeal irritation often seen in meningitis cases. Kernig's sign involves bending the client's leg at a 90-degree angle at the hip and then attempting to extend the leg at the knee. Severe pain during this maneuver indicates a positive Kernig's sign, suggesting irritation of the meningeal membranes. Brudzinski's sign involves flexing the neck causing involuntary flexion of the hips and knees; Romberg's sign assesses balance and proprioception; Babinski's sign checks for abnormal reflexes in the foot.

4. The nurse provides home care instructions to the parents of a child with celiac disease. The nurse should teach the parents to include which food item in the child's diet?

• A. Rice
• B. Oatmeal
• C. Rye toast
• D. White bread

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In celiac disease, individuals are intolerant to gluten found in wheat, barley, rye, and oats. Therefore, it is crucial to eliminate these grains from the diet. Rice, corn, or millet are safe alternatives for individuals with celiac disease. Oatmeal is generally avoided unless specifically labeled as gluten-free due to possible cross-contamination. Rye toast and white bread contain gluten and should be avoided in celiac disease. Vitamin supplements may also be necessary to address deficiencies caused by dietary restrictions.

5. While suctioning the endotracheal tube of an adult client, what level of pressure should the nurse apply?

• A. 70-80 mmHg
• B. 100-120 mmHg
• C. 150-170 mmHg
• D. 200 mmHg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When suctioning the endotracheal tube of an adult client, the nurse should set the suction apparatus at a level no higher than 150 mmHg, with a preferable level between 100 and 120 mmHg. Suction pressure that is too high can contribute to the client's hypoxia. Alternatively, too low suction pressure may not clear adequate amounts of secretions. Choice A (70-80 mmHg) is too low and may not effectively clear secretions. Choices C (150-170 mmHg) and D (200 mmHg) are too high and can potentially harm the client by causing hypoxia or damaging the airway.

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