NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Exam Cram
1. A patient is admitted and complains of gastric pain, fever, and diarrhea. Which assessment finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Abdominal distention
- B. A bruit near the epigastric area
- C. 3 episodes of vomiting in the last hour
- D. Blood pressure of 160/90
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A bruit near the epigastric area may indicate the presence of an aortic aneurysm, which is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate medical attention. Abdominal distention, while concerning, may not be as urgent as a potential aneurysm. Vomiting episodes may suggest underlying issues but do not present an immediate life-threatening situation. A blood pressure of 160/90, though elevated, does not pose the same level of immediate threat as a potential aortic aneurysm.
2. Your patient has shown the following signs and symptoms: Feeling very thirsty, large amount of water intake, dryness of the mouth, and urinary frequency. What physical disorder does this patient most likely have?
- A. Diabetes
- B. Angina
- C. Hypertension
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The patient is exhibiting classic signs of diabetes, such as polydipsia (feeling very thirsty), polyuria (large amount of water intake and urinary frequency), and xerostomia (dryness of the mouth). These symptoms are indicative of high blood glucose levels, which are characteristic of diabetes. Other common signs of diabetes include poor vision, unexplained weight loss, peripheral neuropathy (tingling in the feet and hands), and fatigue. Angina is chest pain due to reduced blood flow to the heart, not associated with the symptoms described in the patient. Hypertension is high blood pressure, which typically does not present with these specific symptoms related to diabetes. Hypotension is low blood pressure and is not consistent with the signs and symptoms presented by the patient, pointing more towards diabetes as the likely diagnosis.
3. A patient who has a right-sided chest tube following a thoracotomy has continuous bubbling in the suction-control chamber of the collection device. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. Document the presence of continuous bubbling.
- B. Notify the surgeon of a possible pneumothorax.
- C. Take no further action with the collection device.
- D. Adjust the dial on the wall regulator to decrease suction.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the suction-control chamber of the chest tube collection device is an expected finding and indicates that the suction control chamber is connected to suction. It does not necessarily indicate a large air leak, which would be detected in the water-seal chamber. There is no evidence to suggest a pneumothorax based solely on continuous bubbling in the suction-control chamber. Adjusting the suction level by changing the wall regulator setting is not indicated in this situation, as the amount of suction applied is primarily regulated by the water level in the water-seal chamber and not by the vacuum source. Therefore, the most appropriate action in this scenario is for the nurse to take no further action with the collection device.
4. Which finding would necessitate an immediate change in the therapeutic plan for a patient with grade 2 hepatic encephalopathy?
- A. Weight loss of 2 lb (1 kg)
- B. Positive urine pregnancy test
- C. Hemoglobin level of 10.4 g/dL
- D. Complaints of nausea and anorexia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A positive urine pregnancy test would require an immediate change in the therapeutic plan for a patient with grade 2 hepatic encephalopathy due to the teratogenic effects of ribavirin. Ribavirin needs to be discontinued immediately to prevent harm to the fetus. The other options, weight loss, hemoglobin level, and complaints of nausea and anorexia, are common adverse effects of the prescribed regimen and may necessitate interventions such as patient education or supportive care, but they would not mandate an immediate cessation of therapy as in the case of a positive pregnancy test.
5. The nurse is caring for a 2-year-old who is being treated with chelation therapy, calcium disodium edetate, for lead poisoning. The nurse should be alert for which of the following side effects?
- A. Neurotoxicity
- B. Hepatomegaly
- C. Nephrotoxicity
- D. Ototoxicity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is nephrotoxicity. Calcium disodium edetate, used in chelation therapy for lead poisoning, can lead to kidney toxicity. This is an important side effect to monitor in patients undergoing this treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Neurotoxicity, hepatomegaly, and ototoxicity are not typically associated with calcium disodium edetate therapy for lead poisoning.
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