Nursing Elites

1. What is a priority problem for a child with severe edema caused by nephrotic syndrome?

• A. Risk for constipation
• B. Risk for skin breakdown
• C. Inability to regulate body temperature
• D. Consuming more calories or nutrients than the body requires

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In nephrotic syndrome, characterized by massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema, a child with severe edema is at high risk for skin breakdown. The priority concern is to prevent skin breakdown by cleaning skin surfaces and ensuring adequate separation with clothing to avoid irritation. The child with nephrotic syndrome is typically anorexic, making consuming more calories or nutrients than necessary not a concern. Risk for constipation and inability to regulate body temperature are not primary issues associated with edema caused by nephrotic syndrome.

2. Which action should the nurse take to evaluate treatment effectiveness for a patient who has hepatic encephalopathy?

• A. Ask the patient to extend both arms forward.
• B. Request that the patient walk with eyes closed.
• C. Ask the patient to perform the Valsalva maneuver.
• D. Observe the patient's breathing pattern.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To evaluate treatment effectiveness for a patient with hepatic encephalopathy, requesting the patient to walk with eyes closed is crucial. This test assesses the patient's balance, gait, and coordination, which can be impaired in hepatic encephalopathy due to altered mental status and brain function. Walking with eyes closed challenges the patient's sensory input and proprioception, providing valuable information on improvement or deterioration in neurological function. Asking the patient to extend both arms forward is used to check for asterixis, a sign often seen in hepatic encephalopathy, but it is not specific for evaluating treatment effectiveness. Performing the Valsalva maneuver is unrelated to assessing hepatic encephalopathy and is more commonly used in cardiac evaluations. Observing the patient's breathing pattern may be important in other conditions but is not directly relevant to evaluating treatment effectiveness for hepatic encephalopathy.

3. A client is scheduled for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP). In order to prepare the client for this test, the nurse would:

• A. Instruct the client to maintain a regular diet the day prior to the examination.
• B. Restrict the client's fluid intake 4 hours prior to the examination.
• C. Administer a laxative to the client the evening before the examination.
• D. Inform the client that only 1 x-ray of his abdomen is necessary.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct preparation for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP) involves administering a laxative to the client the evening before the examination. This is crucial to ensure adequate bowel preparation, which in turn allows for better visualization of the bladder and ureters during the procedure. An IVP is an x-ray exam that utilizes contrast material to evaluate the kidneys, ureters, and bladder, aiding in the diagnosis of conditions like blood in the urine or pain in the side or lower back. Administering a laxative helps in achieving optimal imaging quality, which is essential for accurate diagnosis and subsequent treatment planning. Choice A is incorrect because maintaining a regular diet is not the standard preparation for an IVP. Choice B is incorrect as fluid intake is not typically restricted for this procedure. Choice D is incorrect as an IVP involves multiple x-rays to assess the urinary system, not just one of the abdomen.

4. The nurse prepares a patient with a left-sided pleural effusion for a thoracentesis. How should the nurse position the patient?

• A. Supine with the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees
• B. In a high-Fowler's position with the left arm extended
• C. On the right side with the left arm extended above the head
• D. Sitting upright with the arms supported on an overbed table

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct position for a patient with a left-sided pleural effusion undergoing thoracentesis is sitting upright with the arms supported on an overbed table. This position helps increase lung expansion, allows fluid to collect at the lung bases, and expands the intercostal space making access to the pleural space easier. Placing the patient supine, in a high-Fowler's position, or on the right side with the left arm extended above the head could increase the work of breathing for the patient and complicate the thoracentesis procedure for the healthcare provider.

5. A couple asks the nurse about risks of several birth control methods. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. Norplant is safe and can be easily removed.
• B. Oral contraceptives should not be used by smokers.
• C. Depo-Provera is convenient with few side effects.
• D. The IUD provides protection against pregnancy and infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is that oral contraceptives should not be used by smokers. The use of oral contraceptives in a woman who smokes increases the risk of cardiovascular problems, such as thromboembolic disorders. This is due to the combined effect of smoking and hormonal contraceptives. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific risk associated with smoking and oral contraceptives. Norplant's safety and ease of removal, Depo-Provera's convenience with few side effects, and the IUD's protection against pregnancy and infection are important points but not directly related to the increased risks for smokers using oral contraceptives.

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