NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. A 1-month-old infant has a head measurement of 34 cm and a chest circumference of 32 cm. Based on the interpretation of these findings, what action would the nurse take?
- A. Refer the infant to a physician for further evaluation.
- B. Consider these findings normal for a 1-month-old infant.
- C. Expect the chest circumference to be greater than the head circumference.
- D. Ask the parent to return in 2 weeks to re-evaluate the head and chest circumferences.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In infants, a normal head measurement is approximately 32 to 38 cm, and it is usually around 2 cm larger than the chest circumference. These measurements vary with age; between 6 months and 2 years, both measurements are approximately the same, and after age 2 years, the chest circumference becomes greater than the head circumference. Given that the 1-month-old infant's head measurement is within the typical range and slightly larger than the chest circumference, the nurse should consider these findings normal. There is no indication to refer the infant for further evaluation or to have the parent return for re-evaluation in 2 weeks, as these measurements fall within the expected parameters for a 1-month-old infant.
2. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a client with a diagnosis of Risk for Activity Intolerance?
- A. Perform nursing activities throughout the entire shift
- B. Assess for signs of increased muscle tone
- C. Minimize environmental noise
- D. Teach clients to perform the Valsalva maneuver
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a client diagnosed with Risk for Activity Intolerance is to minimize environmental noise. Environmental noise can increase the energy demand on the client as they try to manage their responses to stimuli. By reducing excess noise, the nurse helps promote rest and conserves the client's energy, which is crucial in managing activity intolerance. Choice A is incorrect because increasing nursing activities may exacerbate the client's intolerance to activity. Choice B is incorrect as assessing for signs of increased muscle tone does not directly address the issue of activity intolerance. Choice D is incorrect as teaching the Valsalva maneuver is not relevant to managing activity intolerance in this scenario.
3. The acronym FAST is used to help responders remember the steps to recognizing which of the following conditions?
- A. Onset of labor in a pregnant woman
- B. Stroke
- C. Heart attack
- D. Migraine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stroke. The acronym FAST is used to help recognize the signs of a stroke. The letters stand for Face, Arms, Speech, and Time. This mnemonic helps in identifying facial drooping, arm weakness, speech difficulties, and the importance of time in seeking emergency care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the FAST acronym specifically pertains to stroke recognition, not the onset of labor, heart attacks, or migraines.
4. Which desired outcome written by the nurse is correctly written and measurable?
- A. Client will have a normal bowel pattern by April 2
- B. The client will lose 4 lbs. within the next 2 weeks
- C. The nurse will provide skin care at least 3 times each day
- D. The client will breathe better after resting for 10 minutes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An outcome statement must describe the observable client behavior that should occur in response to the nursing interventions. It consists of a subject, action verb, conditions under which the behavior is to be performed, and the level at which the client will perform the desired behavior. Option B is correctly written and measurable as it includes all the required elements: subject (client), action verb (lose), conditions (within the next 2 weeks), and the level at which the behavior should occur (4 lbs.). Option A lacks the conditions and a specific level, making it not measurable. Option C is a nursing intervention rather than a client goal. Option D does not provide a specific level at which the client should perform the desired behavior, making it not measurable as well.
5. A second-year nursing student has just suffered a needlestick while working with a patient that is positive for AIDS. Which of the following is the most significant action that the nursing student should take?
- A. Immediately see a social worker
- B. Start prophylactic AZT treatment
- C. Start prophylactic Pentamidine treatment
- D. Seek counseling
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Starting prophylactic AZT treatment is the most critical intervention in this scenario. Azidothymidine (AZT) is an antiretroviral medication used to prevent and treat HIV/AIDS by reducing the replication of the virus. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for HIV involves taking medication to suppress the virus and prevent infection after exposure. PEP should be initiated within 72 hours of potential HIV exposure to be effective. Seeking treatment quickly is crucial to enhance its effectiveness. Seeing a social worker (Choice A) may be helpful for emotional support but is not the immediate priority. Pentamidine treatment (Choice C) is not indicated for post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV. Seeking counseling (Choice D) is important for the nursing student's emotional well-being but does not address the urgent need for post-exposure prophylaxis to prevent HIV transmission.
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