Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is an organizational factor that affects workplace violence directed at nurses?

• A. Clients who have short hospital stays
• B. The presence of security guards
• C. Restricted client areas
• D. Understaffing of nursing personnel

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Understaffing of nursing personnel is a critical organizational factor that can contribute to workplace violence directed at nurses. When there are too few nurses on duty due to understaffing, it can lead to delays in care delivery and inadequate attention to clients' needs. This situation can result in heightened frustration, aggression, or violence from clients or their families towards the nursing staff. On the other hand, the presence of security guards (Choice B) may enhance safety in the workplace and deter violence, making it an incorrect choice. Clients who have short hospital stays (Choice A) and restricted client areas (Choice C) are not directly linked to organizational factors that promote workplace violence against nurses, making them incorrect choices.

2. A client has fallen asleep in his bed in the hospital. His heart rate is 65 bpm, his muscles are relaxed, and he is difficult to arouse. Which stage of the sleep cycle is this client experiencing?

• A. Stage 1
• B. Stage 2
• C. Stage 3
• D. Stage 4

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client in this scenario is experiencing stage 3 of the sleep cycle. In stage 3, the individual has moved into deeper stages of sleep, making it difficult to arouse. Characteristics of stage 3 include relaxed muscles, a decrease in vital signs, and being very still. Stage 3 is a phase of non-REM sleep where the client progresses towards REM sleep and vivid dreams. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Stage 1 is characterized by light sleep, stage 2 is a slightly deeper sleep with sleep spindles and K-complexes, and stage 4 is the deepest stage of sleep with the slowest brain waves.

3. A student is late for an appointment and has rushed across campus to the health clinic. How should the nurse proceed?

• A. Allow 5 minutes for the student to relax and rest before checking their vital signs.
• B. Check the blood pressure in both arms, expecting a difference in the readings due to the recent exercise.
• C. Immediately monitor the student's vital signs upon arrival at the clinic and then 5 minutes later, recording any differences.
• D. Check the student's blood pressure in the supine position to provide a more accurate reading and allow the student to relax at the same time.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To ensure an accurate blood pressure reading, it is important for the student to be in a relaxed state. Allowing at least a 5-minute rest period helps reduce anxiety and provides a valid blood pressure measurement. Checking the blood pressure in both arms is unnecessary unless there is a specific reason to suspect an issue, and recent exercise should not significantly impact the readings. Monitoring vital signs immediately upon arrival may not yield accurate results due to the rush and anxiety of the student. Checking blood pressure in the supine position is not necessary in this scenario and does not provide a more accurate reading.

4. A patient is diagnosed with essential hypertension. Which of the following blood pressures would you expect to see in this patient prior to taking medications for the condition?

• A. 142/92
• B. 118/72
• C. 120/80
• D. 138/88

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before starting medications for essential hypertension, a patient would typically present with a blood pressure reading equal to or greater than 140/90. This indicates high blood pressure and is characteristic of essential hypertension. Choice A, 142/92, falls within this range, making it the correct answer. Choices B (118/72), C (120/80), and D (138/88) all have blood pressure readings that are within the normal range and would not typically be expected in a patient diagnosed with essential hypertension. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the elevated blood pressure levels seen in essential hypertension.

5. Which technique is correct when assessing the radial pulse of a patient?

• A. Palpate for 1 minute if the rhythm is irregular.
• B. Palpate for 15 seconds and multiply by 4 if the rhythm is regular.
• C. Palpate for 2 full minutes to detect any variation in amplitude.
• D. Palpate for 10 seconds and multiply by 6 if the rhythm is regular and the patient has no history of cardiac abnormalities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing the radial pulse, if the rhythm is irregular, the pulse should be counted for a full minute to get an accurate representation of the pulse rate. In cases where the rhythm is regular, the recommended technique is to palpate for 15 seconds and then multiply by 4 to calculate the beats per minute. This method is more accurate and efficient for normal or rapid heart rates. Palpating for 30 seconds and multiplying by 2 is not as effective, as any error in counting results in a larger discrepancy in the calculated heart rate. Palpating for 2 full minutes is excessive and not necessary for routine pulse assessment. Palpating for 10 seconds and multiplying by 6 is not a standard technique and may lead to inaccuracies, especially in patients with cardiac abnormalities.

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