Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is an organizational factor that affects workplace violence directed at nurses?

• A. Clients who have short hospital stays
• B. The presence of security guards
• C. Restricted client areas
• D. Understaffing of nursing personnel

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Understaffing of nursing personnel is a critical organizational factor that can contribute to workplace violence directed at nurses. When there are too few nurses on duty due to understaffing, it can lead to delays in care delivery and inadequate attention to clients' needs. This situation can result in heightened frustration, aggression, or violence from clients or their families towards the nursing staff. On the other hand, the presence of security guards (Choice B) may enhance safety in the workplace and deter violence, making it an incorrect choice. Clients who have short hospital stays (Choice A) and restricted client areas (Choice C) are not directly linked to organizational factors that promote workplace violence against nurses, making them incorrect choices.

2. While performing CPR, a healthcare provider encounters a client with a large amount of thick chest hair when preparing to use an automated external defibrillator (AED). What is the next appropriate action for the healthcare provider?

• A. Apply the pads to the chest and provide a shock
• B. Wipe the client's chest down with a towel before applying the pads
• C. Shave the client's chest to remove the hair
• D. Do not use the AED

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When using an AED, it is crucial for the pads to have good contact with the skin to effectively deliver an electrical shock. While AED pads can adhere to a client's chest even with some hair, thick chest hair can hinder proper current conduction. In such cases, it is recommended to shave the area of the chest where the pads will be applied. Most AED kits include a razor for this purpose. The healthcare provider should act promptly to minimize delays in defibrillation. Option A is incorrect because it may lead to ineffective treatment due to poor pad adherence. Option B is not the best course of action as wiping the chest may not resolve the issue of poor pad contact. Option D is incorrect as not using the AED could jeopardize the client's chance of survival in a cardiac emergency.

3. Intermittent fevers are:

• A. fevers which come and go.
• B. fevers which rise and fall but are always considered above the patient's average temperature.
• C. fevers which fluctuate more than three degrees and never return to normal.
• D. None of the above.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Intermittent fevers are characterized by periods of fever followed by periods of normal body temperature. They alternate between being febrile and afebrile. Continuous fevers show minimal fluctuations over a 24-hour period, while remittent fevers fluctuate significantly but do return to normal body temperature. Choice A is correct as it accurately describes intermittent fevers. Choices B and C are incorrect as they do not fully capture the defining characteristic of intermittent fevers, which involve cyclical episodes of fever and normal temperature. Choice D is incorrect as there is a specific definition for intermittent fevers.

4. A patient has suddenly developed shortness of breath and appears to be in significant respiratory distress. After calling the physician and placing the patient on oxygen, which of these actions is the best for the nurse to take when further assessing the patient?

• A. Count the patient's respirations.
• B. Bilaterally percuss the thorax, noting any differences in percussion tones.
• C. Call for a chest x-ray and wait for the results before beginning an assessment.
• D. Inspect the thorax for any new masses and bleeding associated with respirations.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a situation where a patient is in significant respiratory distress, bilaterally percussing the thorax to note any differences in percussion tones is a crucial nursing intervention. Percussion provides instant feedback regarding changes in underlying tissue density, which can give important clues about the patient's physical status. This hands-on assessment technique is readily available and can be performed promptly. Counting the patient's respirations, while important, may not provide as much detailed information as percussion. Ordering a chest x-ray and waiting for the results can cause a delay in assessing and addressing the patient's immediate needs. Inspecting the thorax for new masses and bleeding, although relevant, may not offer as much real-time information about the patient's condition compared to percussion.

5. During an examination, the nurse notices that a female patient has a round "moon"? face, central trunk obesity, and a cervical hump. Her skin is fragile with bruises. The nurse determines that the patient likely has which condition?

• A. Gigantism
• B. Acromegaly
• C. Cushing syndrome
• D. Marfan syndrome

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cushing syndrome is characterized by weight gain and edema with central trunk and cervical obesity (buffalo hump) and a round, plethoric face (moon face). Excessive catabolism in Cushing syndrome causes muscle wasting, weakness, thin arms and legs, reduced height, and thin, fragile skin with purple abdominal striae, bruising, and acne. Gigantism is characterized by increased height and weight and delayed sexual development, which are not present in the patient. Acromegaly results from excessive growth hormone secretion in adulthood, leading to bone overgrowth in specific areas like the face, head, hands, and feet. Marfan syndrome is an inherited connective tissue disorder characterized by a tall, thin stature and distinct features not seen in this patient. The combination of signs described in the question aligns with the clinical presentation of Cushing syndrome.

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