NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. Which of the following is TRUE about shock?
- A. A patient with severe shock does not always have an abnormally low blood pressure.
- B. Confusion and deteriorating mentation are indicative of hypotensive shock.
- C. Patients with compensated shock may not be able to maintain a normal blood pressure.
- D. A normal blood pressure does not imply that the patient is stable.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Confusion and deteriorating mentation are indeed indicative of hypotensive shock. It is important to note that a patient with hypotensive shock will likely exhibit deteriorating mental status. Choice A is incorrect because a patient in severe shock may not always have an abnormally low blood pressure, making it an unreliable indicator of shock severity. Choice C is incorrect because patients with compensated shock may present with normal blood pressure but still have inadequate tissue perfusion. Choice D is incorrect because a normal blood pressure does not guarantee the patient's stability, especially in cases of shock where tissue perfusion may be compromised despite normal blood pressure readings.
2. What is the cause of meningitis that is fatal in half of the infected patients?
- A. Virus
- B. Bacteria
- C. Fungus
- D. Noninfectious agent
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Bacterial meningitis is caused by bacterial pathogens such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Listeria monocytogenes, and Neisseria meningitidis. These bacteria commonly lead to acute onset meningitis, presenting with symptoms like fever, stiff neck, and altered consciousness. The statement that bacterial meningitis is fatal in about 50% of cases is accurate, making it a serious and life-threatening condition. Viruses can also cause meningitis, but they are not typically associated with the high fatality rate seen in bacterial meningitis. Fungal meningitis is less common and usually affects individuals with weakened immune systems. Noninfectious agents do not cause meningitis.
3. A child is diagnosed with Hirschsprung's disease. The nurse is teaching the parents about the cause of the disease. Which statement, if made by the parent, supports that teaching was successful?
- A. The absence of special cells in the rectum caused the disease.
- B. Incomplete digestion of the protein part of wheat, barley, rye, and oats is not the cause of the disease.
- C. The disease does not occur due to increased bowel motility leading to spasm and pain.
- D. The disease is not caused by the inability to tolerate sugar found in dairy products.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hirschsprung's disease, also known as congenital aganglionosis or megacolon, is characterized by the absence of ganglion cells in the rectum and, sometimes, extending into the colon. Choice A correctly explains the cause of Hirschsprung's disease. Choice B is incorrect as it describes celiac disease, which is related to gluten intolerance. Choice C is inaccurate as it describes symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome, not the cause of Hirschsprung's disease. Choice D is wrong as it pertains to lactose intolerance, not Hirschsprung's disease.
4. When supporting the psychosocial needs of a client experiencing negative side effects associated with chemotherapy, which intervention is most appropriate?
- A. Read the client's discharge instructions well in advance of dismissal
- B. Provide medications to reduce nausea and vomiting
- C. Give simple instructions about self-care while in the hospital
- D. Determine the levels of support from significant others
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client is experiencing negative side effects associated with chemotherapy, addressing their psychosocial needs is crucial. One effective intervention is to determine the levels of support from significant others. This involves assessing the family, spouse, or friends who can provide help and support to the client when healthcare providers are not present. By identifying and organizing these resources, the nurse can help alleviate fears about the future, prepare caregivers for the client's needs, and facilitate a smoother transition for the client upon discharge. Reading discharge instructions, providing medications, or giving self-care instructions, although important, do not directly address the psychosocial needs of the client during this challenging time.
5. One hour after a thoracotomy, a patient complains of incisional pain at a level 7 (based on a 0 to 10 scale) and has decreased left-sided breath sounds. The pleural drainage system has 100 mL of bloody drainage and a large air leak. Which action is best for the nurse to take next?
- A. Milk the chest tube gently to remove any clots.
- B. Clamp the chest tube momentarily to check for the origin of the air leak.
- C. Assist the patient to deep breathe, cough, and use the incentive spirometer.
- D. Set up the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) and administer the loading dose of morphine.
Correct answer: S
Rationale: In this scenario, the best action is to set up the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) and administer the loading dose of morphine. The patient's pain level is high, which can hinder deep breathing and coughing. Addressing pain control is a priority to facilitate optimal respiratory function. Milking the chest tube to remove clots is unnecessary as the drainage amount is not alarming in the early postoperative period. Clamping the chest tube to locate the air leak is not recommended as it can lead to tension pneumothorax. Assisting the patient to deep breathe, cough, and use the incentive spirometer is important but should follow adequate pain management to ensure the patient can effectively participate in these activities.
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