Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is TRUE about shock?

• A. A patient with severe shock does not always have an abnormally low blood pressure.
• B. Confusion and deteriorating mentation are indicative of hypotensive shock.
• C. Patients with compensated shock may not be able to maintain a normal blood pressure.
• D. A normal blood pressure does not imply that the patient is stable.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Confusion and deteriorating mentation are indeed indicative of hypotensive shock. It is important to note that a patient with hypotensive shock will likely exhibit deteriorating mental status. Choice A is incorrect because a patient in severe shock may not always have an abnormally low blood pressure, making it an unreliable indicator of shock severity. Choice C is incorrect because patients with compensated shock may present with normal blood pressure but still have inadequate tissue perfusion. Choice D is incorrect because a normal blood pressure does not guarantee the patient's stability, especially in cases of shock where tissue perfusion may be compromised despite normal blood pressure readings.

2. During shift change, a healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's medication. Which of the following medications would be contraindicated if the patient were pregnant?

• A. Warfarin (Coumadin)
• B. Celecoxib (Celebrex)
• C. Clonidine (Catapres)
• D. Transdermal nicotine (Habitrol)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Warfarin (Coumadin) is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its pregnancy category X classification. It is associated with central nervous system defects, spontaneous abortion, stillbirth, prematurity, hemorrhage, and ocular defects when administered at any time during pregnancy. Fetal warfarin syndrome can occur when given during the first trimester. Celecoxib (Celebrex) is a pregnancy category C medication, which means there may be risks but benefits may outweigh them. Clonidine (Catapres) is also a pregnancy category C drug, and while animal studies have shown adverse effects on the fetus, there are limited human studies. Transdermal nicotine (Habitrol) is classified as a pregnancy category D drug, indicating positive evidence of fetal risk, but benefits may still warrant its use in pregnant women with serious conditions.

3. When assessing a patient being treated for Parkinson's Disease with classic symptoms, the nurse expects to note which assessment finding?

• A. Tremors
• B. Low Urine Output
• C. Exaggerated arm movements
• D. Risk for Falls

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a patient with Parkinson's Disease, the nurse should expect to note tremors as one of the cardinal signs of the condition. The classic symptoms of Parkinson's Disease include tremors, rigidity, bradykinesia (slow movements), and postural instability. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Low urine output is not a typical assessment finding associated with Parkinson's Disease. Exaggerated arm movements are not characteristic of the usual motor symptoms seen in Parkinson's Disease. While patients with Parkinson's Disease are at an increased risk for falls due to balance and coordination issues, 'Risk for Falls' is not an assessment finding but rather a potential nursing diagnosis based on the assessment findings.

4. A 65-year-old man is prescribed Flomax (Tamsulosin) for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia. The patient lives in an upstairs apartment. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of Flomax?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Back Pain
• D. Difficulty Urinating

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypotension.' Flomax (Tamsulosin) is known to cause orthostatic hypotension, especially in the elderly, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when standing up. This side effect can result in dizziness, falls, and injury, especially concerning for a patient living in an upstairs apartment. Tachycardia (increased heart rate) and back pain are less commonly associated with Flomax use, while difficulty urinating is a symptom that Flomax is intended to improve in patients with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia.

5. Which of the following conditions is a contraindication for performing a diagnostic peritoneal lavage?

• A. A client who is 9 weeks pregnant
• B. A client with a femur fracture
• C. A morbidly obese client
• D. A client with hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Diagnostic peritoneal lavage is contraindicated in morbidly obese clients due to several reasons. Excess body fat in morbidly obese individuals makes it challenging to locate essential landmarks required for the procedure. Additionally, the equipment utilized for the lavage may not be sized appropriately to accommodate an obese individual. Furthermore, morbid obesity places undue stress on the cardiovascular and respiratory systems, increasing the risk of complications when administering anesthetic agents during the procedure. Therefore, performing a diagnostic peritoneal lavage on a morbidly obese client is not recommended. Choice A, a client who is 9 weeks pregnant, is not a contraindication for diagnostic peritoneal lavage. Pregnancy status alone does not preclude the procedure unless there are specific maternal or fetal concerns. Choice B, a client with a femur fracture, is not a contraindication for diagnostic peritoneal lavage. The presence of a femur fracture does not typically affect the ability to perform this diagnostic procedure. Choice D, a client with hypertension, is not a contraindication for diagnostic peritoneal lavage. Hypertension, while a consideration for anesthesia and surgery, does not directly impact the feasibility of performing a diagnostic peritoneal lavage.

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