Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is speaking at a community meeting about personal responsibility for health promotion. A participant asks about chiropractic treatment for illnesses. What should be the focus of the nurse's response?

• A. Electrical energy fields
• B. Spinal column manipulation
• C. Mind-body balance
• D. Exercise of joints

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The focus of the nurse's response should be on spinal column manipulation when discussing chiropractic treatment for illnesses. Chiropractic theory emphasizes that misalignment of the vertebrae can interfere with the transmission of mental impulses between the brain and body organs, leading to diseases. Manipulation is aimed at reducing such misalignments, known as subluxations. While mind-body balance and exercise of joints are important aspects of holistic health, in the context of chiropractic treatment, the key intervention is spinal column manipulation to address vertebral misalignments. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the primary focus of chiropractic treatment.

2. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate to maintain the patency of a client's nasogastric tube?

• A. Maintain a constant connection to low-intermittent suction
• B. Irrigate the tube as per physician's order
• C. Suction the mouth and nose every shift
• D. Perform a daily fecal occult blood sample

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to irrigate the tube as per physician's order. A client with a nasogastric tube is at risk of the tube kinking or clotting off, which can lead to complications such as abdominal distention or vomiting. To ensure the patency of the tube, the nurse should follow the physician's orders and facility policy to irrigate the tube with water or a solution as needed. Maintaining a constant connection to low-intermittent suction (Choice A) is not typically done to maintain tube patency. Suctioning the mouth and nose every shift (Choice C) is not directly related to maintaining nasogastric tube patency. Performing a daily fecal occult blood sample (Choice D) is unrelated to maintaining the patency of a nasogastric tube.

3. Which of the following is an example of intrapersonal conflict?

• A. A nurse feels guilty when she administers essential medication that causes a client to have nausea and vomiting
• B. A nurse is called to testify in court about a client she cared for three years ago
• C. A nurse feels guilty for working overtime
• D. A nurse faces a conflict with a colleague over patient care decisions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Intrapersonal conflict involves negative feelings or frustrations within oneself. It may be related to decisions or actions that clash with personal morals or beliefs. Choice A is the correct answer because the nurse is experiencing guilt due to administering medication that causes a client to have negative side effects, which reflects an internal struggle. Choices B, C, and D do not represent intrapersonal conflict. Choice B involves a legal obligation, Choice C is related to external factors like working overtime, and Choice D pertains to a conflict with a colleague.

4. A patient diagnosed with a mild anxiety disorder has been referred to treatment in a community mental health center. Treatment most likely provided by the center includes

• A. Medical management of symptoms
• B. Daily psychotherapy
• C. Constant staff supervision
• D. Psychological stabilization

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Community mental health centers focus on rehabilitation, vocational needs, education, and socialization, as well as on the management of symptoms and medication. For a patient with a mild anxiety disorder, the primary focus would be on providing medical management of symptoms, such as prescribing appropriate medications and monitoring their effectiveness. Daily psychotherapy is not typically provided in community mental health centers for mild cases, as it may not be necessary. Constant staff supervision and psychological stabilization are more suited for patients requiring a higher level of care or in acute settings where continuous monitoring and stabilization are essential.

5. What is involved in obtaining informed consent?

• A. An explanation of the reasons for the procedure
• B. A signature on a form indicating the client agrees to the procedure
• C. A statement affirming liability if complications arise during the procedure
• D. Both A and C

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Informed consent involves providing the client with an explanation of the reasons for the procedure, the potential risks, benefits, and available alternatives. It is essential for the healthcare provider to ensure that the client understands the information provided before agreeing to the procedure. While obtaining a signature on a consent form is part of the process, it is not the sole indicator of informed consent. Option C, which mentions liability statements, is incorrect as informed consent focuses on ensuring the client understands the procedure, not on affirming liability. Therefore, the correct answer is the explanation of the reasons for the procedure.

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