Nursing Elites

1. Which of these statements best describes the characteristics of an effective reward feedback system?

• A. Specific feedback is given as close to the event as possible
• B. Staff is given feedback in equal amounts over time
• C. Positive statements precede negative statements
• D. Performance goals should be higher than what is attainable

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that specific feedback should be given as close to the event as possible in an effective reward feedback system. This is important because feedback is most useful when provided immediately. Giving feedback promptly reinforces positive behavior and helps in modifying problem behaviors. Providing feedback close to the event helps in ensuring that standards are clearly understood and can be met. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because staff should not be given feedback in equal amounts over time, positive statements do not necessarily have to precede negative statements, and setting performance goals higher than what is attainable can lead to demotivation and decreased performance.

2. Which of the following abides by the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990?

• A. A nurse manager cannot cancel an interview with a potential employee because he has left-sided paralysis
• B. A nurse is allowed to have a leave of absence to recover after a back injury
• C. A nurse is mandated to receive 12 weeks off of work after having a baby
• D. A nurse manager must hire a nurse who uses a walker for mobility

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 prohibits discrimination against individuals with disabilities in employment practices, ensuring equal opportunities for qualified individuals. Therefore, a nurse manager cannot cancel an interview with a potential employee simply because the individual has left-sided paralysis. Doing so would be considered discriminatory under the ADA. Choices B, C, and D do not directly align with ADA requirements. Choice B involves medical leave, which can be covered under a different law; choice C refers to maternity leave, which is protected under other regulations; and choice D involves a hiring decision based on a mobility aid, not the individual's qualifications, which does not fall under ADA guidelines.

3. Which of the following screening tools have been found to have high diagnostic accuracy for screening for intimate partner violence?

• A. Hurt, Insult, Threaten, and Scream (HITS)
• B. Humiliation, Afraid, Rape, and Kick (HARK)
• C. Slapped, Threatened, and Thrown (STaT)
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: All of the above screening tools, including HITS, HARK, and STaT, have been found to have high diagnostic accuracy for screening intimate partner violence, as per the National Preventive Services Task Force. These tools are effective in identifying current or recent intimate partner violence. While the Partner Violence screen may have some predictive value for future intimate partner violence, the question specifically focuses on screening tools with high diagnostic accuracy, making 'All of the above' the correct choice. Choices A, B, and C are specific validated screening tools for intimate partner violence, each with its own set of questions that have been shown to be effective in identifying individuals experiencing intimate partner violence. Therefore, 'All of the above' is the most comprehensive and accurate choice for this question.

4. Which of the following is a function of risk management?

• A. To consider the problems that arise if errors happen and their effects on the healthcare environment
• B. To identify how nursing care responds to specific client problems
• C. To view clients as customers and decide what actions will provide a satisfying healthcare experience
• D. To analyze physician-nurse relationships and determine where collaboration efforts can improve

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The function of risk management in healthcare is to assess and address potential risks that could lead to errors and their effects on the healthcare environment. This involves identifying, evaluating, and prioritizing risks to minimize their impact and prevent adverse outcomes. Choice A is correct because it aligns with the core purpose of risk management in healthcare. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the primary focus of risk management, which is the proactive management of risks to ensure patient safety and quality care.

5. A client has entered disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) after becoming extremely ill after surgery. Which of the following laboratory findings would the nurse expect to see with this client?

• A. Elevated fibrinogen level
• B. Prolonged PT
• C. Elevated platelet count
• D. Depressed d-dimer level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a client experiences widespread clotting throughout the body, leading to the depletion of clotting factors and platelets. A prolonged prothrombin time (PT) is a common finding in DIC. The PT measures the extrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and reflects how quickly blood can clot. In DIC, the consumption of clotting factors results in a prolonged PT, indicating impaired clotting ability. Elevated fibrinogen levels (Choice A) are typically seen in the early stages of DIC due to the body's attempt to compensate for clot breakdown. Elevated platelet count (Choice C) is not a typical finding in DIC as platelets are consumed during the widespread clotting. A depressed d-dimer level (Choice D) is also not expected in DIC as d-dimer levels are elevated due to the breakdown of fibrin clots. Therefore, the correct answer is a prolonged PT.

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