Nursing Elites

1. A client with asthma is being admitted for breathing difficulties. His arterial blood gas results are pH 7.26, PCO2 49, PaO2 90, and HCO3- 21. Which of the following best describes this condition?

• A. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
• B. Compensated respiratory alkalosis
• C. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis
• D. Compensated metabolic alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this case, the client's arterial blood gas results show a pH of 7.26 and a PCO2 of 49, both of which are abnormal. A pH below the normal range of 7.35-7.45 indicates acidosis. The elevated PCO2 of 49 mmHg suggests respiratory acidosis as the primary issue. The normal range for PCO2 is 35-45 mmHg, so a value of 49 indicates the retention of excess CO2, leading to acidosis. The low HCO3- level of 21 also supports the presence of metabolic acidosis; however, the primary abnormality is respiratory, making this an uncompensated respiratory acidosis. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Uncompensated respiratory acidosis.' Choice B, 'Compensated respiratory alkalosis,' is incorrect because the client's pH is acidic, not alkalotic. Additionally, there is no compensation occurring for the primary respiratory acidosis indicated by the elevated PCO2. Choice C, 'Uncompensated metabolic acidosis,' is incorrect because while the HCO3- level is low, the primary issue indicated by the elevated PCO2 is respiratory acidosis. Choice D, 'Compensated metabolic alkalosis,' is incorrect since the arterial blood gas results do not support a metabolic alkalosis. The low HCO3- level would typically be seen in metabolic acidosis, but in this case, the primary issue is respiratory acidosis.

2. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is slow to respond and appears to be listening to unseen others. Which medication should a nurse expect a physician to order to address this type of symptom?

• A. Haloperidol (Haldol) to address the negative symptom
• B. Clonazepam (Klonopin) to address the positive symptom
• C. Risperidone (Risperdal) to address the positive symptom
• D. Clozapine (Clozaril) to address the negative symptom

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct medication to address the symptom described, where the client is slow to respond and appears to be listening to unseen others, is Risperidone (Risperdal). Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic that is commonly used to manage positive symptoms of schizophrenia. Positive symptoms can include hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking. Haloperidol (Haldol) and Clozapine (Clozaril) are typically used for addressing negative symptoms, such as lack of motivation or social withdrawal. Clonazepam (Klonopin) is a benzodiazepine primarily used for anxiety disorders and seizures, not for addressing symptoms of schizophrenia.

3. A new nursing unit is opening in the hospital. In order to meet the staffing needs of the unit, nurses from other areas will be moved and required to work in the new area. When notifying the nurses chosen to staff this area, the nurse manager states, 'You will either move to work on this unit or you will no longer be employed at this hospital.' Which of the following strategies is this nurse manager using?

• A. Manipulation
• B. Facilitation
• C. Co-optation
• D. Coercion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse manager in this scenario is using a coercion tactic to influence the nurses' job changes. Coercion involves using power to force others to make a choice. In this case, the nurses are left with no option but to either work on the new unit or face termination. Choice A, 'Manipulation,' is incorrect as manipulation involves influencing others through deceit or dishonesty, which is not evident in this situation. Choice B, 'Facilitation,' is incorrect as it refers to the process of making something easier or more convenient, which is not applicable here. Choice C, 'Co-optation,' involves absorbing or integrating individuals into a group, which does not align with the scenario described. Therefore, the most suitable term for the nurse manager's strategy is 'Coercion.'

4. Employee health test results reveal a tuberculosis (TB) skin test of 16-mm induration and a negative chest x-ray for a staff nurse working on the pulmonary unit. The nurse has no symptoms of TB. Which information should the occupational health nurse plan to teach the staff nurse?

• A. Standard four-drug therapy for TB
• B. Need for annual repeat TB skin testing
• C. Use and side effects of isoniazid (INH)
• D. Bacille Calmette-Gurin (BCG) vaccine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse is considered to have a latent TB infection and should be treated with INH daily for 6 to 9 months. The four-drug therapy would be appropriate if the nurse had active TB. TB skin testing is not done for individuals who have already had a positive skin test. BCG vaccine is not used in the United States for TB and would not be helpful for this individual, who already has a TB infection.

5. If a healthcare professional prevents intentional harm from occurring to a patient, which ethical principle is being supported?

• A. Beneficence
• B. Nonmaleficence
• C. Justice
• D. Fidelity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Nonmaleficence. Nonmaleficence is the ethical principle that emphasizes the obligation to avoid causing harm intentionally. In this scenario, by preventing intentional harm to a patient, the healthcare professional is upholding the principle of nonmaleficence. Beneficence, although important, focuses on doing good and promoting well-being rather than solely preventing harm. Justice relates to fairness and equality in resource distribution, while fidelity involves being faithful and keeping promises, which are not directly applicable to the situation of preventing intentional harm to a patient.

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