NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Preview Answers
1. The healthcare professional is preparing to percuss the abdomen of a patient. What characteristic of the underlying tissue does percussion assess?
- A. Turgor
- B. Texture
- C. Density
- D. Consistency
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Percussion is a technique used to assess the density of underlying organs by producing sounds that help determine their location and size. Turgor, texture, and consistency are primarily assessed through palpation, not percussion. Turgor refers to skin elasticity, texture pertains to the feel of the tissue surface, and consistency relates to the firmness or resistance of the tissue.
2. The hospital has sounded the call for a disaster drill on the evening shift. Which of these clients would the nurse prioritize first on the list to be discharged in order to make a room available for a new admission?
- A. A middle-aged client with a history of being ventilator dependent for over seven (7) years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago.
- B. A young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 for over ten (10) years and admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago.
- C. An elderly client with a history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and lupus, and was admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome that morning.
- D. An adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best candidate for discharge during a need for emergency room availability is a stable patient with a chronic condition who is familiar with their care. In this scenario, the middle-aged client in option A, who has been ventilator dependent for over seven years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago, is most suitable for discharge. This client is likely stable and can continue medication therapy at home, making them the most appropriate choice for discharge at this time. Choice B should not be the priority for discharge as the young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago may need further monitoring and management of their condition. Choice C, the elderly client with multiple comorbidities and admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome on the same day, is not a suitable candidate for immediate discharge as they may require ongoing medical attention and observation. Choice D, the adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago, should not be discharged first as acute cellulitis may require continued treatment and monitoring, especially in the context of a positive HIV status.
3. On admission to the psychiatric unit, the client is trembling and appears fearful. The nurse's initial response should be to:
- A. Give the client orientation materials and review the unit rules and regulations.
- B. Introduce him/her and accompany the client to the client's room.
- C. Take the client to the day room and introduce him/her to the other clients.
- D. Ask the nursing assistant to get the client's vital signs and complete the admission search.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Anxiety is triggered by change that threatens the individual's sense of security. In response to anxiety in clients, the nurse should remain calm, minimize stimuli, and move the client to a calmer, more secure/safe setting. The correct initial response is to introduce the client and accompany them to their room. This approach helps the client feel oriented, safe, and supported. Giving orientation materials or reviewing rules and regulations may overwhelm the client further. Taking the client to the day room and introducing them to other clients could increase anxiety by exposing them to unfamiliar faces. Asking the nursing assistant to get vital signs and complete admission tasks can wait until the client feels more settled and secure in their environment.
4. A client is preparing to administer an enema to a 64-year-old client. Which of the following actions of the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. Assist the client to lie in the semi-Fowler position
- B. Apply lubricating jelly to the tip of the catheter before insertion
- C. Instill a total of 30cc of fluid into the client's rectum
- D. Ask the client to hold the solution in for 30 seconds
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When administering an enema to a client, the nurse should place the client in the Sims' position for easy access. The correct action is to apply lubricating jelly to the tip of the catheter before insertion to facilitate a smoother procedure. It is essential to instill a maximum of 750 to 1000 cc of fluid for an adult client, not just 30cc. Following administration, the nurse should ask the client to hold the solution for at least 5 minutes to allow for the desired effect of the enema. Therefore, choice B is the most appropriate action, as choices A, C, and D are incorrect due to inaccuracies in positioning, enema volume, and retention time.
5. A nurse is preparing to irrigate a client's indwelling catheter through a closed, intermittent system. Which of the following steps must the nurse take as part of this process?
- A. Use sterile solution at room temperature
- B. Position the client in a comfortable position
- C. Clamp the catheter at the level above the injection port
- D. Inject sterile solution through the injection port into the catheter
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When performing closed intermittent system catheter irrigation, the nurse should use sterile solution at room temperature with sterile technique. It is important to position the client comfortably for easy access to the catheter site and to assess the abdomen during the procedure. Clamping the catheter should be done below the level of the injection port, not above. The correct step is to inject sterile solution through the injection port into the catheter, allowing the fluid to travel up the catheter to irrigate the tubing and the bladder.
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