Nursing Elites

1. The client is a chronic carrier of infection. To prevent the spread of the infection to other clients or healthcare providers, the nurse emphasizes interventions that do which of the following? (Berman & Snyder, 2012, p. 713)

• A. Eliminate the reservoir
• B. Block the portal of exit from the reservoir
• C. Block the portal of entry into the host
• D. Decrease the susceptibility of the host

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To prevent the spread of infection from a chronic carrier, the nurse should focus on blocking the portal of exit from the reservoir, which is the carrier person. By preventing the movement of the organism from the reservoir, the infection can be contained. Eliminating the reservoir is not feasible in this case as the carrier is a chronic carrier. Blocking the portal of entry into the host or decreasing the susceptibility of the host would only impact individual prevention and not the spread from the carrier to others.

2. During the examination, it is often appropriate to offer some brief teaching about the patient's body or the examiner's findings. Which one of these statements by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. "Your atrial dysrhythmias are under control."?
• B. "You have pitting edema and mild varicosities."?
• C. "Your pulse is 80 beats per minute, which is within the normal range."?
• D. "I'm using my stethoscope to listen for any crackles, wheezes, or rubs in your lungs."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During an examination, providing brief educational information to the patient can enhance rapport, as long as the patient can comprehend the terminology. The most appropriate statement from the nurse is "Your pulse is 80 beats per minute, which is within the normal range." This statement conveys a vital sign in a way that is likely understandable to the patient. Choices A, B, and D use terminology that may be unfamiliar or confusing to the patient. Option A mentions 'atrial dysrhythmias,' which might not be clear to the patient. Option B involves terms like 'pitting edema' and 'varicosities,' which could be unfamiliar to the patient. Option D references 'crackles,' 'wheezes,' and 'rubs,' which might not be easily understood by the patient.

3. For the nursing diagnostic statement, Self-care deficit: feeding related to bilateral fractured wrists in casts, what is the major related factor or risk factor identified by the nurse?

• A. Discomfort
• B. Deficit
• C. Feeding
• D. Fractured wrists

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fractured wrists.' In a nursing diagnostic statement, the related factor or risk factor is the underlying cause of the identified problem. In this case, the major factor affecting the self-care deficit in feeding is the bilateral fractured wrists in casts. The fractured wrists directly impact the client's ability to feed themselves, making it the primary related factor. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as discomfort, deficit, and feeding are not the primary cause of the feeding problem in this scenario; rather, it is the physical limitation caused by the fractured wrists that is the focus of the nursing intervention.

4. When is a physician likely to assess turgor?

• A. When iron deficiency is suspected.
• B. When heart and lung issues are suspected.
• C. When dehydration is suspected.
• D. None of the above.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Skin turgor is assessed when dehydration is suspected. To evaluate skin turgor, a physician pinches the skin and observes how quickly it returns to its normal position. If the skin stays folded for an extended period, it indicates dehydration. Assessing turgor helps determine a patient's hydration status. Choice A is incorrect because skin turgor is not used to assess iron deficiency. Choice B is incorrect as turgor is not related to heart and lung issues, but rather hydration status. Choice D is incorrect as turgor assessment is relevant when dehydration is suspected.

5. The nurse is taking an initial blood pressure reading on a 72-year-old patient with documented hypertension. How should the nurse proceed?

• A. Cuff should be placed on the patient's arm and inflated 30 mm Hg above the point at which the palpated pulse disappears.
• B. Cuff should be inflated to 200 mm Hg in an attempt to obtain the most accurate systolic reading.
• C. Cuff should be inflated 30 mm Hg above the patient's pulse rate.
• D. After confirming the patient's previous blood pressure readings, the cuff should be inflated 30 mm Hg above the highest systolic reading recorded.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When measuring blood pressure, it's important to account for the possibility of an auscultatory gap, which occurs in about 5% of individuals, particularly those with hypertension due to a noncompliant arterial system. To detect an auscultatory gap, the cuff should be inflated 20 to 30 mm Hg beyond the point at which the palpated pulse disappears. This ensures an accurate measurement of blood pressure by overcoming the potential gap in sounds. Choice A is correct as it follows this guideline. Choices B and C are incorrect because inflating the cuff to 200 mm Hg or above the patient's pulse rate does not address the specific issue of an auscultatory gap. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on the patient's previous readings rather than the current measurement technique needed to detect an auscultatory gap.

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