Nursing Elites

1. When measuring the vital signs of a 6-month-old infant, which action by the nurse is correct?

• A. Respirations are measured first, followed by pulse and temperature.
• B. Vital signs should be measured as frequently as in an adult.
• C. Procedures are explained to the parent, and the infant is encouraged to handle the equipment.
• D. The nurse should first measure the infant’s vital signs before performing a physical examination.

Correct answer: Respirations are measured first, followed by pulse and temperature.

Rationale: When assessing vital signs in a 6-month-old infant, the correct order is to measure respirations first, followed by pulse and temperature. This sequence is important to avoid potential alterations in respiratory and pulse rates caused by factors like crying or discomfort. Measuring the temperature first, especially rectally, may lead to an increase in respiratory and pulse rates, which can skew the results. It is crucial to follow this specific order to obtain accurate baseline values. Therefore, option A is the correct choice. Option B is incorrect as the frequency of measuring vital signs in infants differs based on individual needs rather than being consistently more frequent than in adults. Option C is not directly related to the correct sequence for measuring vital signs in infants. Option D is incorrect because the physical examination typically follows the assessment of vital signs in clinical practice.

2. What is the MOST ACCURATE statement regarding the ESR test?

• A. The results are diagnostic for certain conditions.
• B. Abnormal results are indicative of a potentially fatal illness.
• C. Abnormal results should be followed by additional testing.
• D. Results are reported in millimeters per hour.

Correct answer: Abnormal results should be followed by additional testing.

Rationale: The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a non-specific screening test for inflammation in the body. It is not used as a definitive diagnostic tool for specific conditions. When ESR results are abnormal, they indicate the presence of inflammation, which can be caused by various reasons. Therefore, abnormal results should be followed by additional testing to determine the underlying cause. The ESR test measures the rate at which red blood cells settle in a vertical tube over the span of one hour, and results are reported in millimeters per hour. Choice A is incorrect because ESR results are not solely diagnostic for any specific condition. Choice B is incorrect as abnormal ESR results do not directly indicate a potentially fatal illness without further investigation. Choice D is incorrect as the results are reported in millimeters per hour, not per minute.

3. The client starting an exercise program will progress to walking a 20-minute mile in one month.

• A. Client will walk quickly three times a day
• B. Client will be able to walk a mile
• C. Client will have no alteration in breathing during the walk
• D. Client will progress to walking a 20-minute mile in one month

Correct answer: Client will progress to walking a 20-minute mile in one month

Rationale: Outcome statements must be written in behavioral terms and identify specific, measurable client behaviors. They are stated in terms of the client with an action verb that, under identified conditions, will achieve the desired behavior. Choice A lacks specificity and does not mention a target time or goal. Choice B is vague and does not provide a specific target for improvement. Choice C focuses on a negative outcome (no alteration) rather than a positive goal. The correct answer, Choice D, is specific, measurable, and time-bound, making it a suitable outcome statement for a client starting an exercise program.

4. What procedure examines a portion of the large intestine with an endoscope?

• A. Colposcopy
• B. Sigmoidoscopy
• C. Upper GI
• D. Cardiac catheterization

Correct answer: B: Sigmoidoscopy

Rationale: Sigmoidoscopy is the correct answer because it specifically examines the sigmoid colon located in the descending colon using an endoscope inserted through the rectum. This procedure captures video and images of the large intestine's lining, helping in the diagnosis of conditions like inflammatory bowel disease or colorectal cancer. Colposcopy, on the other hand, is a procedure for examining the cervix and vagina, not the large intestine. Upper GI involves capturing images of the esophagus and stomach, focusing on the upper gastrointestinal tract, not the large intestine. Cardiac catheterization is a procedure that involves threading a thin instrument through the femoral artery to the heart, used for cardiac interventions and not related to examining the large intestine.

5. When performing an EKG, the patient starts to laugh out of feelings of anxiety. What would you expect the EKG to show? (Choose the BEST answer.)

• A. Increased pulse rate, normal EKG
• B. Decreased pulse rate, abnormal EKG
• C. Tachycardia, poor EKG graph
• D. Bradycardia, poor EKG graph

Correct answer: C: Tachycardia, poor EKG graph

Rationale: When a patient laughs due to anxiety during an EKG, it is likely to cause tachycardia, which is a rapid heart rate. This increased heart rate can lead to poor EKG graph quality as the electrical signals from large moving muscles can interfere with data collection from the chest leads. Therefore, in this scenario, the EKG is expected to show tachycardia with poor graph quality. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a patient laughing out of anxiety is more likely to result in an increased pulse rate (tachycardia) rather than a decreased pulse rate (bradycardia) or a normal EKG.

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