NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. The nurse is writing out discharge instructions for the parents of a child diagnosed with celiac disease. The nurse should focus primarily on which aspect of care?
- A. Restricting activity
- B. Following a gluten-free diet
- C. Following a lactose-free diet
- D. Giving medication to manage the condition
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary nursing consideration in the care of a child with celiac disease is to instruct the child and parents about proper dietary management. The cornerstone of managing celiac disease is maintaining a strict gluten-free diet to prevent symptoms and long-term complications. While medications may be part of the treatment plan, dietary adjustments, particularly following a gluten-free diet, are crucial for managing the condition effectively. Restricting activity is not the primary focus of care for celiac disease. A lactose-free diet is not typically necessary unless the child also has lactose intolerance, which is distinct from celiac disease.
2. A client has just been diagnosed with active tuberculosis. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse perform to prevent transmission to others?
- A. Begin drug therapy within 72 hours of diagnosis
- B. Place the client in a positive-pressure room
- C. Initiate standard precautions
- D. Place the client in a negative-pressure room
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A client diagnosed with active tuberculosis should be placed in isolation in a negative-pressure room to prevent transmission of infection to others. Placing the client in a negative-pressure room ensures that air is exhausted to the outside and received from surrounding areas, preventing tuberculin particles from traveling through the ventilation system and infecting others. Initiating standard precautions, as mentioned in choice C, is essential for infection control but is not specific to preventing transmission in the case of tuberculosis. Beginning drug therapy within 72 hours of diagnosis, as in choice A, is crucial for the treatment of tuberculosis but does not directly address preventing transmission. Placing the client in a positive-pressure room, as in choice B, is incorrect as positive-pressure rooms are used for clients with compromised immune systems to prevent outside pathogens from entering the room, which is not suitable for a client with active tuberculosis.
3. During a physical exam, a healthcare professional assisting a client suspected of having meningitis bends the client's leg at the hip to a 90-degree angle. When attempting to extend the leg at the knee, the client experiences severe pain. What type of test is being performed?
- A. Brudzinski's sign
- B. Romberg's sign
- C. Kernig's sign
- D. Babinski's sign
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The healthcare professional is performing Kernig's sign, a test for meningeal irritation often seen in meningitis cases. Kernig's sign involves bending the client's leg at a 90-degree angle at the hip and then attempting to extend the leg at the knee. Severe pain during this maneuver indicates a positive Kernig's sign, suggesting irritation of the meningeal membranes. Brudzinski's sign involves flexing the neck causing involuntary flexion of the hips and knees; Romberg's sign assesses balance and proprioception; Babinski's sign checks for abnormal reflexes in the foot.
4. Which of the following conditions most commonly causes acute glomerulonephritis?
- A. A congenital condition leading to renal dysfunction.
- B. Prior infection with group A Streptococcus within the past 10-14 days.
- C. Viral infection of the glomeruli.
- D. Nephrotic syndrome.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Acute glomerulonephritis is most commonly caused by the immune response to a prior upper respiratory infection with group A Streptococcus. Glomerular inflammation occurs about 10-14 days after the infection, resulting in scant, dark urine and retention of body fluid. Periorbital edema and hypertension are common signs at diagnosis.
5. The nurse is reviewing the lab results of a patient taking lithium for schizoaffective disorder. The lab results show that the blood lithium value is 1.7 mcg/L. What would the nurse take as the priority action?
- A. Induce vomiting
- B. Hold the next dose of Lithium
- C. Administer an antiemetic
- D. Give the next dose of Lithium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the next dose of Lithium. The blood lithium value of 1.7 mcg/L exceeds the therapeutic range of 0.5-1.5 mcg/L, indicating potential toxicity. Holding the next dose is crucial to prevent further accumulation of lithium in the bloodstream. Inducing vomiting is not appropriate in this situation as the priority is to prevent further absorption of lithium. Administering an antiemetic is not the priority in lithium toxicity. Giving the next dose of lithium would exacerbate the toxicity and should be avoided.
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