NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX PN Questions
1. The client is in the maintenance stage based on the transtheoretical model of health behavior change. Which stage is the client in?
- A. Action
- B. Preparation
- C. Maintenance
- D. Contemplation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client is in the maintenance stage of human behavior change. During this stage, the client has successfully incorporated the changes into their lifestyle. The maintenance stage typically begins 6 months after the action stage and continues indefinitely. The action stage lasts for 6 months from when the client initially incorporates the changes. In the preparation stage, the client starts realizing that the benefits of change outweigh the disadvantages and starts making small changes to prepare for major changes in the following month. The contemplation stage involves the client considering whether to make changes in the next 6 months. Therefore, in this scenario, the client's consistent adherence to the diet and exercise program for 8 months places them in the maintenance stage of behavior change.
2. Which response would the nurse make at lunchtime to a client who is sitting alone with the head slightly tilted as if listening to something?
- A. "I know you're busy, but it's lunchtime."
- B. "Are the voices bothering you again?"
- C. "Get going; you don't want to miss lunchtime."
- D. "It's lunchtime; I'll walk with you to the dining room."
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The statement, "It's lunchtime; I'll walk with you to the dining room," demonstrates setting limits and providing support. Hallucinations can be frightening, and the nurse's presence offers support and reality without focusing on the hallucination directly. Choice A, "I know you're busy, but it's lunchtime," does not recognize the client's need for support and direction. Choice B, "Are the voices bothering you again?", makes a judgment without sufficient evidence and overly focuses on the hallucination, failing to address the client's need for support and direction. Choice C, "Get going; you don't want to miss lunchtime," does not acknowledge the client's need for reality, support, and direction, and may come across as threatening.
3. The wife of a client who is dying says, 'I want to see him, but I can only come twice a week because of work, household chores, and caring for our cat and dog.' Which defense mechanism is the wife using?
- A. Projection
- B. Sublimation
- C. Compensation
- D. Rationalization
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The wife is using rationalization as a defense mechanism. Rationalization involves offering a socially acceptable or logical explanation to justify an unacceptable feeling or behavior. In this scenario, the wife justifies her limited visits to her dying husband by citing other responsibilities such as work, household chores, and pet care. Projection involves denying one's unacceptable feelings and attributing them to others. Sublimation is the substitution of unacceptable feelings or drives with socially acceptable behaviors. Compensation involves making up for a perceived deficiency by emphasizing another perceived asset.
4. Urinary catheterization is prescribed for a postoperative female client who has been unable to void for 8 hours. The nurse inserts the catheter, but no urine is seen in the tubing. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Clamp the catheter and recheck it in 60 minutes.
- B. Pull the catheter back 3 inches and redirect upward.
- C. Leave the catheter in place and reattempt with another catheter.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider of a possible obstruction.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When no urine is seen in the tubing after inserting a catheter in a female client who has not voided for 8 hours, it is possible that the catheter is in the vagina rather than the bladder. Leaving the initial catheter in place can help locate the meatus for the second attempt. The client should have at least 240 mL of urine output after 8 hours, indicating the need for catheterization. Clamping the catheter (Option A) does not address the issue of incorrect catheter placement. Pulling the catheter back and redirecting it (Option B) is not effective unless the catheter is completely removed, requiring a new catheter. There is no indication of a urinary tract obstruction to notify the healthcare provider (Option D) as the catheter could be inserted easily.
5. Based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement when providing care for an older incontinent client?
- A. Maintain standard precautions.
- B. Initiate contact isolation measures.
- C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
- D. Instruct the client in the use of adult diapers.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection in an older incontinent client is to maintain standard precautions. The best way to reduce the risk of infection in vulnerable clients is through proper handwashing and adherence to standard precautions. Option B, initiating contact isolation measures, is excessive unless the client has a confirmed infection requiring isolation. Option C, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, actually increases the risk of infection due to the introduction of a foreign body. Option D, instructing the client in the use of adult diapers, does not directly address the risk of infection and is not as effective as maintaining standard precautions in preventing infection transmission.
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