NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX PN Questions
1. The client is in the maintenance stage based on the transtheoretical model of health behavior change. Which stage is the client in?
- A. Action
- B. Preparation
- C. Maintenance
- D. Contemplation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client is in the maintenance stage of human behavior change. During this stage, the client has successfully incorporated the changes into their lifestyle. The maintenance stage typically begins 6 months after the action stage and continues indefinitely. The action stage lasts for 6 months from when the client initially incorporates the changes. In the preparation stage, the client starts realizing that the benefits of change outweigh the disadvantages and starts making small changes to prepare for major changes in the following month. The contemplation stage involves the client considering whether to make changes in the next 6 months. Therefore, in this scenario, the client's consistent adherence to the diet and exercise program for 8 months places them in the maintenance stage of behavior change.
2. The nurse is performing an admission assessment for a non-English speaking patient who is from China. Which actions could the nurse take to enhance communication (select one that does not apply)?
- A. Use an electronic translation application.
- B. Use a telephone-based medical interpreter.
- C. Wait until an agency interpreter is available.
- D. Ask the patient's teenage daughter to interpret.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Electronic translation applications, telephone-based medical interpreters, and agency interpreters are all appropriate tools to enhance communication with non-English-speaking patients. However, asking the patient's teenage daughter to interpret is not recommended due to potential misinterpretation of crucial information during the admission assessment. While family members may be considered in the absence of a professional interpreter, there is a risk of misunderstanding or lack of sharing essential details. It is important to rely on trained interpreters to ensure accurate communication and avoid miscommunication or misinterpretation of critical information. Using gestures can be helpful, but over-exaggeration of gestures is unnecessary and may lead to confusion.
3. A 30-year-old woman is scheduled for a total abdominal hysterectomy due to noninvasive endometrial cancer. The nurse anticipates the client may have difficulty adjusting emotionally to this type of surgery. Which concern would be the cause of this anticipated difficulty?
- A. Change in femininity
- B. Body image changes
- C. Diminished sexual desire
- D. Slow recovery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Change in femininity.' The removal of the uterus can lead to changes in how some women perceive themselves sexually as it is a reproductive organ. In this young client, there may be heightened feelings of loss of femininity and reproductive potential. Body image changes could occur but are more likely with surgeries involving obvious external changes. Diminished sexual desire is unlikely in a premenopausal woman unless she has specific concerns. Slow recovery is not expected in an otherwise healthy 30-year-old woman undergoing this surgery.
4. Which clinical findings indicate positive signs and symptoms of schizophrenia?
- A. Withdrawal, poverty of speech, inattentiveness
- B. Flat affect, decreased spontaneity, asocial behavior
- C. Hypomania, labile mood swings, episodes of euphoria
- D. Bizarre behavior, auditory hallucinations, loose associations
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is bizarre behavior, auditory hallucinations, and loose associations. These are positive symptoms of schizophrenia, reflecting a distortion or excess of normal function. Withdrawal, poverty of speech, inattentiveness, flat affect, decreased spontaneity, and asocial behavior are negative symptoms linked to schizophrenia, indicating a diminution or absence of normal function. Hypomania, labile mood swings, and episodes of euphoria are more characteristic of bipolar disorder, rather than schizophrenia.
5. The nurse who is preparing to give an adolescent client a prescribed antipsychotic medication notes that parental consent has not been obtained. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Review the chart for a signed consent for medication administration.
- B. Get the guardian's permission to give the medication.
- C. Do not give the medication and document the reason.
- D. Complete an incident report and notify the supervisor.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action for the nurse to take is not to administer the medication and document the reason. Since the adolescent client is a minor, parental or guardian consent is required for medical treatment, including medication administration. Option A, reviewing the chart for a signed consent for medication administration, is not the appropriate action in this situation as the focus is on parental consent for the client. Option B is incorrect because obtaining the health care provider's permission does not replace the need for parental consent for a minor. Option D, completing an incident report and notifying the supervisor, is unnecessary as there is no adverse event to report; the key concern is the lack of parental consent for medication administration.
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