Nursing Elites

1. A client who has been told she needs a hysterectomy for cervical cancer reports being upset about being unable to have a third child. Which action would the nurse take?

• A. Evaluate her willingness to pursue adoption.
• B. Encourage her to focus on her own recovery.
• C. Emphasize that she does have two children already.
• D. Ensure that other treatment options for her are explored.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should ensure that other treatment options for the client are explored. While a hysterectomy may be necessary for cervical cancer, conservative management options like cervical conization and laser treatment may allow for future pregnancies. It is crucial for the nurse to inform the client of all available treatment choices. Evaluating the client's willingness to pursue adoption is not directly addressing the client's concerns about fertility. Encouraging the client to focus on her own recovery and emphasizing that she already has two children dismiss the client's distress over not being able to have a third child, which is important to acknowledge in a sensitive manner.

2. Which initial response would the nurse make to a 67-year-old man with type 2 diabetes who sadly confides in the nurse that he has been unable to have an erection for several years?

• A. 'At your age, sex isn't that important.''
• B. ''That is a natural occurrence at your age.''
• C. ''You sound upset about not being able to have an erection.''
• D. 'Maybe it's time for you to speak to your primary health care provider about this.''

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is, 'You sound upset about not being able to have an erection.' When a client discloses personal information, the nurse should respond in a non-judgmental manner to encourage further communication and gather more details. This response demonstrates empathy and understanding, opening the door for the patient to express his feelings and concerns. Choice A, 'At your age, sex isn't that important,' is dismissive and fails to address the client's emotions or concerns, potentially hindering open communication. Choice B, 'That is a natural occurrence at your age,' provides inaccurate information as the inability to have an erection is not considered a normal part of aging. Choice D, 'Maybe it's time for you to speak to your primary health care provider about this,' while important eventually, should not be the initial response as the nurse should first explore the client's feelings and concerns before discussing potential referrals or interventions.

3. When caring for a patient who speaks a different language and an interpreter is unavailable, which action by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Talk slowly to ensure clear understanding
• B. Speak loudly in close proximity to the patient's ears
• C. Repeat important words to emphasize their significance
• D. Use simple gestures to demonstrate meaning while communicating

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When faced with a language barrier and lacking an interpreter, using simple gestures can help convey meaning to the patient. This approach can assist in basic communication and understanding. Talking slowly may not be effective if the patient does not understand the language, and speaking loudly can be perceived as aggressive or intimidating. Repeating words may not aid comprehension if the patient is unfamiliar with the language. Therefore, using gestures is the most appropriate option in this situation.

4. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?

• A. Olanzapine
• B. Meperidine
• C. Ziprasidone
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.

5. While reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication, a 72-year-old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual drive. Which is the best response by the nurse?

• A. How will this affect your present sexual activity?
• B. How active is your current sex life?
• C. How has your sex life changed as you have become older?
• D. Tell me about your sexual needs as an older adult.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response in this scenario is option A, 'How will this affect your present sexual activity?' This response directly addresses the client's concern and allows them to express their thoughts and feelings. Option B does not directly address the client's worry about the medication's side effect. Options C and D deviate from the client's immediate concern and are not as relevant in this situation.

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