NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX RN Questions
1. The nurse is preparing an older client for discharge. Which method is best for the nurse to use when evaluating the client's ability to perform a dressing change at home?
- A. Determine how well the client can change the dressing.
- B. Ask the client to demonstrate the procedure.
- C. Seek a family member's opinion on the client's dressing change ability.
- D. Observe the client change the dressing unassisted.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best method for the nurse to evaluate the client's ability to perform a dressing change at home is by observing the client change the dressing unassisted. Direct observation allows the nurse to assess if the client has mastered the skill and provides an opportunity to confirm the proficiency. Options A, B, and C do not offer the same level of assessment as direct observation. Option A incorrectly focuses on the client's feelings rather than their actual performance ability. Option B, asking the client to demonstrate the procedure, may not accurately reflect their practical skills. Option C, seeking a family member's opinion, introduces potential bias and may not provide an accurate assessment of the client's ability to perform the dressing change independently.
2. While conducting an intake assessment of an adult male at a community mental health clinic, the nurse notes that his affect is flat, he responds to questions with short answers, and he reports problems with sleeping. He reports that his life partner recently died from pneumonia. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Encourage the client to see the clinic's grief counselor.
- B. Determine if the client has a family history of suicide attempts.
- C. Inquire about whether the life partner was suffering from AIDS.
- D. Consult with the health care provider about the client's need for antidepressant medications.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The client is exhibiting normal grieving behaviors, so referral to a grief counselor is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement. Option B is relevant but is not a high-priority intervention compared to addressing the immediate grief support needs of the client. Option C is irrelevant at this time but might be important when determining the client's risk for contracting the illness. While antidepressant medication might be necessary based on further assessment, grief counseling is a more appropriate initial action as grief is a typical response to the loss of a loved one.
3. To reduce the risk of venous thrombosis, which measure should the nurse instruct the client in to promote venous return?
- A. Instruct in the use of the incentive spirometer.
- B. Elevate the head of the bed during all meals.
- C. Use aseptic technique to change the dressing.
- D. Encourage frequent ambulation in the hallway.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To prevent venous thrombus formation, promoting venous return is crucial. Encouraging frequent ambulation in the hallway helps prevent venous stasis and reduces the risk of thrombus formation in immobile clients. Option A (using the incentive spirometer) aids in alveolar expansion to prevent atelectasis, not specifically venous thrombosis. Option B (elevating the head of the bed during meals) reduces the risk of aspiration, not venous thrombosis. Option C (using aseptic technique for dressing changes) reduces the risk of postoperative infection, not specifically venous thrombosis. Therefore, among the options provided, encouraging frequent ambulation in the hallway is the most effective measure to prevent venous thrombosis.
4. A client says, 'The doctors lied about me. They said I murdered my mother. You killed her. She died before I was born.' Which psychotic feature is the client experiencing?
- A. Ideas of grandeur
- B. Confusing illusions
- C. Persecutory delusions
- D. Auditory hallucinations
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client is experiencing persecutory delusions, as she believes that others are blaming her for negative actions. This is not about ideas of grandeur, which involve feelings of greatness or power. Confusing illusions refer to misinterpretation of stimuli, which is not present in this scenario. Auditory hallucinations involve hearing voices, which is not the case here. In this case, the client is delusional, but not hallucinating.
5. Urinary catheterization is prescribed for a postoperative female client who has been unable to void for 8 hours. The nurse inserts the catheter, but no urine is seen in the tubing. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Clamp the catheter and recheck it in 60 minutes.
- B. Pull the catheter back 3 inches and redirect upward.
- C. Leave the catheter in place and reattempt with another catheter.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider of a possible obstruction.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When no urine is seen in the tubing after inserting a catheter in a female client who has not voided for 8 hours, it is possible that the catheter is in the vagina rather than the bladder. Leaving the initial catheter in place can help locate the meatus for the second attempt. The client should have at least 240 mL of urine output after 8 hours, indicating the need for catheterization. Clamping the catheter (Option A) does not address the issue of incorrect catheter placement. Pulling the catheter back and redirecting it (Option B) is not effective unless the catheter is completely removed, requiring a new catheter. There is no indication of a urinary tract obstruction to notify the healthcare provider (Option D) as the catheter could be inserted easily.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access