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NCLEX Psychosocial Questions
1. A client who is at 28 weeks’ gestation and in active labor is crying. She says, 'I just know that this baby is going to die. What’s the use of doing all this to save it?' Which explanation would interpret the client’s statements?
- A. She is depressed and needs gentle, positive support during labor.
- B. She is experiencing anticipatory grief and withdrawing from bonding.
- C. She is in need of emotional support to help her cope with the impending birth.
- D. She is struggling to cope with the birth by using the word 'it.'
Correct answer: She is experiencing anticipatory grief and withdrawing from bonding.
Rationale: The client's statement indicates anticipatory grief, where she is preparing for a potential loss. This grief is not necessarily about the literal death of the baby but about the loss of the anticipated healthy full-term baby. The client may not be ready to bond with the reality of a preterm baby. Providing gentle, positive support is essential to help her cope with her feelings, as firm support may come across as dismissive. Sedation is not appropriate as it could hinder the client's emotional processing. Allowing the client to express her emotions and work through anticipatory grieving is crucial. The use of the word 'it' reflects the client's emotional struggle and is not the primary issue at hand.
2. As a nursing supervisor in a long-term care facility, you prioritize strict infection control prevention measures due to the understanding that the normal aging process weakens the body's defenses. Which theory of aging supports the necessity of strict infection control prevention measures?
- A. The Programmed Longevity Theory
- B. The Immunological Theory of Aging
- C. The Endocrine Theory
- D. The Rate of Living Theory
Correct answer: B: The Immunological Theory of Aging
Rationale: The theory of aging that aligns with the need for strict infection control prevention measures is the Immunological Theory of Aging. This theory posits that aging leads to a decline in the body's immune defenses and a reduced ability of antibodies to protect against infections. The other theories do not directly address the impact of aging on the immune system. The Programmed Longevity Theory focuses on genetic changes affecting aging, the Endocrine Theory emphasizes hormonal changes, and the Rate of Living Theory relates longevity to the rate of oxygen metabolism.
3. The patient's symptoms, lack of antibodies for hepatitis, and the abrupt onset of symptoms suggest toxic hepatitis, which can be caused by commonly used over-the-counter drugs such as acetaminophen (Tylenol). Travel to a foreign country and a history of IV drug use are risk factors for viral hepatitis. Corticosteroid use does not cause the symptoms listed.
- A. Hemoglobin
- B. Temperature
- C. Activity level
- D. Albumin level
Correct answer: Albumin level
Rationale: The low oncotic pressure caused by hypoalbuminemia is a major pathophysiologic factor in the development of edema. In this case, monitoring the albumin level is crucial to assess the patient's fluid balance and potential for edema. While hemoglobin, temperature, and activity level are important parameters to monitor in a patient's assessment, they are not directly associated with the patient's current symptoms of toxic hepatitis and edema development. Therefore, the correct choice is the albumin level.
4. An infant is brought to the clinic by his mother, who has noticed that he holds his head in an unusual position and always faces to one side. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
- A. Torticollis, with shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
- B. Craniosynostosis, with premature closure of the cranial sutures
- C. Plagiocephaly, with flattening of one side of the head
- D. Hydrocephalus, with increased head size
Correct answer: Torticollis, with shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
Rationale: The correct answer is torticollis, characterized by the shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, limiting the range of motion of the neck and causing the chin to point to the opposing side. Craniosynostosis is the premature closure of cranial sutures, leading to an abnormal head shape but not necessarily affecting head position. Plagiocephaly is flattening of one side of the head due to external forces or positioning, not muscle shortening. Hydrocephalus presents with an increased head size due to the accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid, not with a fixed head position.
5. Which of the following is an appropriate tension-reduction intervention for a patient who may be escalating toward aggressive behavior?
- A. Asking to speak to someone
- B. Asking to be alone
- C. Listening to music
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: All of the above interventions are appropriate tension-reduction techniques for a patient in the ICU. When a patient is escalating toward aggressive behavior, it is crucial to have a range of strategies to help de-escalate the situation. Asking to speak to someone can provide emotional support and an outlet for communication. Asking to be alone can help the patient have space and time to calm down. Listening to music can be soothing and distracting. These interventions, along with additional ones like walking the hallway, watching television, writing in a journal, or requesting a PRN medication, can be helpful. It is essential to involve the patient in developing the care plan to identify triggers and effective tension-reduction techniques. Patients in escalation may not always recognize the need for intervention, so staff must be observant and offer personalized techniques to address the situation effectively.
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